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Old 08-09-2009, 10:52 PM   #321
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And you're not even the least bit struck by the total absence of even the slightest talk of physical miracles here -- nor by the coincidence that all these texts, no matter their variety of provenance or possible date, concur in so desisting from any physical-miracle claims whatever?

How can we ignore that? The very variety of provenance and genre in these extra-Scriptural texts make their concurrence in the wholesale avoidance of physical-miracle talk that much more compelling.

Chaucer
That's only because you've already disowned the TF with its talk of "wondrous deeds." But what do you actually have in these texts? A reference to a crucifixion, a brother, the claim that Christians sing hymns to Christ as a god. . . where would you expect to find a discussion of miracles? You just don't have enough data of any kind to say that any topic has been avoided.
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Old 08-10-2009, 01:45 AM   #322
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Funny thread.

Another HJer building a house of straw.
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Old 08-10-2009, 04:05 AM   #323
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I, for one -- and plenty of other lifelong skeptics whom I know and who are steeped in this ancient literature on a professional basis -- use the extra-Scriptural texts far more than anything -- anything -- in the NT.
Well, (even assuming their veracity as parts of the texts in which they're now found) they are no help to you (because some would be just hearsay, others simply about christians), so I can understand why you have to perform the way you do.


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Old 08-10-2009, 06:55 AM   #324
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"Christ" is a local term that Jos. applies only to a local boy, Jesus tou legomenou Christou -- Jesus him called Christ. It's the locals that call this Jesus the Christ, so Josephus simply identifies him that way. You and others have already tried strenuously to imply that the term Christ would of itself induce fear and trembling in Josephus. I just don't buy it. The fact that Jos. actually desists from using "Christ" for Vespasian, for whom he's at pains to indicate respect, shows clearly just how he (doesn't) feel about the Christ term.
I asked you before about this supposed "local" term. Local to where? "Christ" is found numerous times in the LXX refering to divinely appointed high priests and kings. Any Greek speaking Jew would know what the term "Christ" was, and Greek was the lingua franca of the entire Roman empire.

So unless you're trying to argue that "local" means "the entire Roman empire" you seem to be using that to ad hoc your way out of an illogical argument.

In Antiquities 20.10.1 Josephus mentions the Persian King Cyrus, who is called "god's anointed one" in Isaiah 45. A very specific phrase. Even though Cyrus fits the role of messiah perfectly, Josephus still doesn't use that term ("anointed one" - "christ") to describe Cyrus. But he's aware that Gentiles can be "messiahs" as well, which is why he argues that Vespasian was the messiah.

Quite ironically, every single high priest is a "christ" or "anointed one" but still Josephus never uses that phrase - either "anointed one" or "christ" - in Ant. 20.10 when enumerating the high priests. He does use the verb "anoint" (χρίω) in Antiquities Books 3, 6, 7, 9, 11, 19; War of the Jews Book 2 and 5. But Josephus never uses the phrase "anointed one" or "the Lord's anointed" or "god's anointed [one]". But he does use the phrase "anointed one" (christ in Greek) the two times he mentions the Jesus of Christianity.

Why is that?
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Old 08-10-2009, 07:41 AM   #325
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Well, tell me about the Jesus called Christ in Antiquities 20.9.1.

Who was the father of this Jesus?

When and where was this Jesus born?

Was this Jesus alive when Josephus was writing Antiquities 20.9.1?
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Josephus doesn't say. O.K., you can now sputter.
Well, once Josephus did not properly identify Jesus called the Christ why are you sputtering that Jesus called Christ in AJ 20.9.1 was the God/man who had no earthly father that was resurrected on the third day?

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And you're going to put stock in Jerome who's of a later generation!
Are you claiming that Jerome is wrong about James? Scholars today make certain claims about the NT, are you saying that the scholars must be wrong because their findings are 2000 years later?

Jerome has contradicted the Pauline Epistles and claimed James was the son of the sister of the mother of Jesus and Church writers agree that Jesus of the NT had no earthly father or that Joseph was not the father of Jesus called Christ.

Please prove to me that Jerome was wrong about James.


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Originally Posted by Chaucer
You really are like a broken record. Josephus never once uses the term "Christ" for Vespasian. There isn't in fact any indication that Jos. attaches any great awe to the term "Christ" at all. I addressed this tired point already. "Christ" is a local term that Jos. applies only to a local boy, Jesus tou legomenou Christou -- Jesus him called Christ. It's the locals that call this Jesus the Christ, so Josephus simply identifies him that way. You and others have already tried strenuously to imply that the term Christ would of itself induce fear and trembling in Josephus. I just don't buy it. The fact that Jos. actually desists from using "Christ" for Vespasian, for whom he's at pains to indicate respect, shows clearly just how he (doesn't) feel about the Christ term.
But, you cannot identify who was Jesus called Christ. Once you reject Antiquities 18.3.3 as a forgery then you simply cannot come to the conclusion that Jesus called Christ in AJ 20.9.1 was already dead when James got stoned.

You cannot claim that Jesus called Christ in AJ 20.9.1 was crucified under Pilate.

You know absolutely nothing about Jesus called Christ in AJ 20.9.1 except that he had a brother called James.

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Originally Posted by aa5874
It must now be clear to you that if the Jews expected a Messiah at around 70 CE that Jesus called Christ or the Messiah in AJ 20.9.1 was probably alive at that time.

There is no corroborative evidence at all that Jesus called Christ in AJ 20.9.1 was already dead before his brother James was stoned.
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There is no proof one way or the other. And you can't turn the lack of proof one way or the other into proof that this Jesus-called-Christ bloke was still alive when Ananus came on the scene.

Chaucer
Well, why are you sputtering now? I already told you that you have no evidence for a human only Jesus and now you tell me that there is no proof one way or the other.

Well, it is all over now. You have nothing. You have sputtered.
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Old 08-10-2009, 10:59 AM   #326
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Originally Posted by Chaucer View Post
"Christ" is a local term that Jos. applies only to a local boy, Jesus tou legomenou Christou -- Jesus him called Christ. It's the locals that call this Jesus the Christ, so Josephus simply identifies him that way. You and others have already tried strenuously to imply that the term Christ would of itself induce fear and trembling in Josephus. I just don't buy it. The fact that Jos. actually desists from using "Christ" for Vespasian, for whom he's at pains to indicate respect, shows clearly just how he (doesn't) feel about the Christ term.
I asked you before about this supposed "local" term. Local to where? "Christ" is found numerous times in the LXX refering to divinely appointed high priests and kings. Any Greek speaking Jew would know what the term "Christ" was, and Greek was the lingua franca of the entire Roman empire.

So unless you're trying to argue that "local" means "the entire Roman empire" you seem to be using that to ad hoc your way out of an illogical argument.

In Antiquities 20.10.1 Josephus mentions the Persian King Cyrus, who is called "god's anointed one" in Isaiah 45. A very specific phrase. Even though Cyrus fits the role of messiah perfectly, Josephus still doesn't use that term ("anointed one" - "christ") to describe Cyrus. But he's aware that Gentiles can be "messiahs" as well, which is why he argues that Vespasian was the messiah.

Quite ironically, every single high priest is a "christ" or "anointed one" but still Josephus never uses that phrase - either "anointed one" or "christ" - in Ant. 20.10 when enumerating the high priests. He does use the verb "anoint" (χρίω) in Antiquities Books 3, 6, 7, 9, 11, 19; War of the Jews Book 2 and 5. But Josephus never uses the phrase "anointed one" or "the Lord's anointed" or "god's anointed [one]". But he does use the phrase "anointed one" (christ in Greek) the two times he mentions the Jesus of Christianity.

Why is that?
Because Jesus the humdrum carpenter is the only one for whom this adjective/verb ever got changed to a noun in the first place. It became a popular shorthand title applied as a noun to this Jesus character only, and it stuck -- for believers and nonbelievers alike. The fact that Josephus desists from applying this as a noun to anyone but Jesus the carpenter makes the historicist case stronger, not weaker.

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Old 08-10-2009, 11:16 AM   #327
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Well, once Josephus did not properly identify Jesus called the Christ why are you sputtering that Jesus called Christ in AJ 20.9.1 was the God/man who had no earthly father that was resurrected on the third day?
You know damn well I'm "sputtering" no such thing. "Jesus called the Christ" in Josephus is the agitator and executed criminal of the Roman chronicles and the coiner of a few sayings in Thomas, not "the God/man who had no earthly father that was resurrected on the third day" -- the latter a mere concoction unique to Scriptural texts only. Besides, Josephus does properly identify this Jesus called the Christ: he's identified as the brother of this James who was threatened with stoning under Ananus. That is sufficient for the narrative at Antiquities 20.


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Are you claiming that Jerome is wrong about James? Scholars today make certain claims about the NT, are you saying that the scholars must be wrong because their findings are 2000 years later?
I'm claiming that prioritizing Jerome over Josephus, or over any texts in the Nag Hammadi collection, etc., is absurd.

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But, you cannot identify who was Jesus called Christ. Once you reject Antiquities 18.3.3 as a forgery then you simply cannot come to the conclusion that Jesus called Christ in AJ 20.9.1 was already dead when James got stoned.
I never said otherwise. All I said is that you cannot prove that Jesus is either alive or dead under Ananus.

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You know absolutely nothing about Jesus called Christ in AJ 20.9.1 except that he had a brother called James.
Big surprise -- and I never said otherwise. It's the Nag Hammadi texts and Thomas and the other Roman chronicles where we should go for anything beyond that.

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Originally Posted by Chaucer
There is no proof one way or the other. And you can't turn the lack of proof one way or the other into proof that this Jesus-called-Christ bloke was still alive when Ananus came on the scene.

Chaucer
Well, why are you sputtering now? I already told you that you have no evidence for a human only Jesus and now you tell me that there is no proof one way or the other.
How convenient to FLAGRANTLY MISREAD what I've said here -- IT'S JOSEPHUS WHO OFFERS NO PROOF ONE WAY OR ANOTHER AS TO JESUS'S BEING ALIVE OR DEAD UNDER ANANUS; BUT THERE ARE OTHER TEXTS, LIKE THOMAS, SOME NAG HAMMADI TEXTS AND OTHER ROMAN CHRONICLES THAT OFFER MORE THAN THAT.

Let's see you pretend not to understand that.

Chaucer
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Old 08-10-2009, 11:19 AM   #328
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..... The fact that Josephus desists from applying this as a noun to anyone but Jesus the carpenter makes the historicist case stronger, not weaker.

Chaucer
It is completely false to claim Josephus applied a title or name only to Jesus the carpenter.

In Antiquities 20.9.1, there is NO claim that Jesus called Christ was a carpenter.
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Old 08-10-2009, 11:32 AM   #329
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Looking for the "Historical Jesus" is actually a non-sequitor
I've given up looking for him. I no longer believe there was a historical Jesus.

I noted that if there was one, he had to meet those four minimal criteria for a particular reason. I have seen historicists suggest that the gospels could have been inspired by the teachings of some Palestinian guru who could have said a few things that ended up being attributed by the gospel authors to Jesus of Nazareth but about whom nothing else in the gospels is true. That possibility certainly cannot be ruled out, but even if it's true, I don't regard it as a close enough match to make that guru "the historical Jesus."

To me it's like the historical King Arthur, who I also think never existed. I accept that there probably was a British warrior named Arthur, or something close thereto, who did something noteworthy on some battlefield during the early Medieval age. I don't think that is sufficient evidence for regarding him as any kind of prototype for the legendary King Arthur of Camelot fame.
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Old 08-10-2009, 11:34 AM   #330
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How then does one account for the fact that this removal process is already done without any "modernizing" ad hoc process whatever, when it comes to the highly fanciful physical miracles being totally absent from all non-Scriptural texts, be it the sayings in Thomas or the references in Josephus, Pliny, Tacitus, Suetonius, and on and on?
Those references are so tiny that we get hardly any details about him from them, so they don't form a "critical mass" of anything?

There were some non-Xians who acknowledged his claimed miracle-working, though in backhanded ways. Some of the authors of the Talmud claimed that he worked his miracles with black magic, and they claimed that the virgin-birth story was a coverup of his real paternity. Yes, they claimed that a Roman soldier named Panthera / Pantera / Pandira was his real father; the name sounds similar to the Greek word for virgin, parthenos. Celsus, a pagan, repeated the latter theory in his critique of Xianity.

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The fact that a critical mass of non-Scriptural texts already have no trace left of physical-miracle nonsense at all, very unlike the Scriptural texts, is too great a coincidence to ignore.
Teeny-tiny ones.

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HJers are using all the New Testament literature that promotes a God/man Jesus and are claiming that Jesus was human.
DEAD WRONG! I, for one -- and plenty of other lifelong skeptics whom I know and who are steeped in this ancient literature on a professional basis -- use the extra-Scriptural texts far more than anything -- anything -- in the NT.
Like how Jesus Christ had been a sorcerer and how his father had been a Roman soldier?
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