aa5874

An examination of Philo's "On the Contemplative Life" will show that he did NOT even mention the words "Jew" or "Jews" in reference to the Theraputae.

There is no mention whatsoever that the Theraputae were circumcised, practised circumcision or called themselves Jews.

stephan huller

He uses the word Israel. Philo almost never (never to my knowledge but I haven't looked) mentions the word Jew or Jewish. No one talks about another man's penis unless it is under very strange circumstances or it is that person's doctor. No one doubts that Philo was Jewish and he never brings up his own jolly roger.

outhouse

Sure we do.

Gentiles had been worshipping Judaism for centuries but not converting.


Almost all of Christianity were hellenistic people who worshipped Judaism, but were not Jews.

This multitude of gentiles were so numerous mixed in with Judaism, the worlds largest religion formed from them.



I still think many of these Gentiles viewed themselves as Jews, since they had followed Judaism for centuries. If you had worshipped Judaism in a synagogue for centuries, you would view yourself as a Jew to. I think the real Jews looked down upon these people and would never refer to them as Jewish.

Use Paul as a example of how the definition of Judaism changes. He had no adherance to the Noahide laws, and claimed to be a jew of jews.


My point, the definition of Judaism in the first century was more complex and dynamic then appears.

aa5874

The word "Israelites" is mentioned ONCE and it is in reference to the Israelites that crossed the Red Sea with Moses.

On the Contemplative Life What??? You have exposed yourself as most questionable. How in the world can you make such absurd claims about Philo without even checking??

You talk about strange things of BC&H.

Now, Philo did mention the words "Jew" and "Jewish" in many of his writings-- perhaps over 100 times.


1. "On Embassy to Gaius"

2. "Flaccus"

3. On the Life of Moses, I

4. On the Life of Moses, II

5. The Decalogue

6. The Special Laws, I

7.The Special Laws, II

8. The Special Laws, III

9. The Special Laws, IV

10. On the Virtues

11. Every Good Man is Free

12. On the Eternity of the World.

aa5874

The Pauline writings have NO Provenance in the NT. The Pauline writings cannot be used as an example of the 1st century when it was unknown to the very authors of the Canon.

Only the short gMark has Provenance or is Corroborated in the Canon.

The authors of the Long gMark, gMatthew and gLuke appear to have and was heavily influenced by the short gMark--Not the Pauline letters.

The Pauline letters are example of 2nd century or later.

stephan huller

aa,

No one doubts that the sect adhered to the laws of Israel including the prohibition on venerating foreign gods. The term for such a belief is 'Jewish' even if the sect in question are not strictly Jewish by race (i.e. the Samaritans). There is not a scholar who has ever published anything on the sect who has questioned the 'Jewish' nature of these Therapeutai. You have repeatedly misread the material and besides you are - well - aa.

aa5874

No, No, No!!! I have exposed that you are completely unfamiliar with the writings of Philo.

You claimed without even checking that "Philo almost never (never to my knowledge but I haven't looked) mentions the word Jew or Jewish.

Your claim is utterly erroneous.

Philo mentioned Jew and Jewish in over 12 writings which means that you really have little knowledge of the writings of Philo.

Earlier, you claimed the Theraputae were Jewish when no such thing is stated by Philo.

Now, the word Jew and Jewish is NOT found in the writings about the Theraputae.

stephan huller

"Stephan's view" - as if "it's just me" who reads the text this way. Sheesh. Go back under Acharya's skirt. I don't have more time to waste on this

Toto

I find it very distressing that first tanya/avi, and now aa5874, can point to the word Greek in a passage in Philo and claim that as evidence that the therapeutae included Greeks -- when it is clear that Philo is not applying that term to the therapeutae that he describes.

He said that it is fitting for both Greece and other non-Greek countries to partake in what is good. Nothing there about the membership of the therapeutae. How do you get any other meaning out of this?

aa5874

You MUST READ the whole text to get the context of the passage.

You MUST READ all of "On the Contemplative Life.

The Therapeutae were from many NATIONS.

The Therapeutae was a sect of Mankind--not just Jews.

On the Contemplative Life