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03-16-2012, 11:30 PM | #151 | ||
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The historical Jesus is based fundamentally on Logical fallacies and Imagination. |
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03-16-2012, 11:45 PM | #152 | ||
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Old song
When it is translated with the Anglo-Saxon genitive ('the Lord's brother'), the significance of the text has been manipulated. It should be left in the neutral "the brother of the lord". Consider:
1a. "the brother of the cross"The second is decidedly strange. But what about the following? 2a. "the brother of god"The word "brother" (αδελφος) is overwhelmingly used by Paul to indicate a believer, not a biological family member. At the same time the word "lord" (κυριος) may refer to god. (I've argued elsewhere that it doesn't make sense that Paul would use the non-titular "lord" without distinction for both Jesus and god.) Talking about "god's brother", has little sense (despite being forced to override Paul's usual use of "brother" purely by the Anglo-Saxon genitive), though we don't have the same problem with "the brother of god", which allows us to consider "brother" as something other than a biological relationship, as is the case in most of Paul's usage of the word. We know that James is a believer, but he's not just a brother, but the brother of the lord, which suggests that he is a believer held in special regard. There are other brothers of the lord. Quote:
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03-16-2012, 11:45 PM | #153 |
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false
its based on what little we know from the mass of evidence sources are Paul, and the gospels, and Josephas that is more then most historical charactors my claim is substanciated. yours however is biased and presented poorly while ignoring facts at hand |
03-17-2012, 12:00 AM | #154 |
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I'm sorry, this post presented like as it is seems to be decontextualized railing. One doesn't know what you are saying "false" about. The rest of it seems like pure unadulterated apologetics attacking something or other. Context would help. So would some of those facts. So would some of that evidence. So would some understanding of the sources you refer to.
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03-17-2012, 12:23 AM | #155 | ||||
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I do not accept your description of the gospels as "irrelevant", nor your assertion that they were developed later. Where's the evidence for either claim? A link suffices, no need to write, if you are pressed for time. You "see Paul's writings as where christianity" began, in harmony with Bart. I don't see that. Too much fog in the way. Can you tear the curtain of fog away, by showing us which source you employ to arrive at the conclusion that Paul precedes Mark? Quote:
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One hopes that the Paul business is not based on the same kind of judgement. |
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03-17-2012, 12:24 AM | #156 | |
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03-17-2012, 03:05 AM | #157 | ||||||
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Paul on the other hand has none of it. (We can rule out the Lucan last supper excerpt that confuses the Pauline communal meal in 1 Cor 11:25ff.) Paul just has the prerequisites of Jesus making him a suitable sacrifice and the bare act of crucifixion with no details whatsoever. Incredibly, he knows nothing of any disciples, just some sort of apostles. If Paul knew anything more than he was telling, he certainly held his cards close to his chest. Paul's total lack of knowledge, beside christ crucified, puts him at the earliest stage of the religion. Quote:
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One hopes that your analyses will get past your own predilections. |
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03-17-2012, 03:06 AM | #158 |
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03-17-2012, 04:34 AM | #159 | ||||
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Fine. I can live with that. I had been studying a bit about 1 Clement, (manuscript evidence for, questions of authenticity, dating methods, etc) and ran across a passage where he mentions (though, perhaps "he" is not correct, for it is apparently not certain that a single individual wrote this letter to the Corinthians) both Peter and Paul. Lightfoot had dated the composition to 95CE, and I sought evidence that it had been authored much later than that, i.e. mid second century.... Back to your point, (emphasized as well, by Bart Ehrman, page 144, "Paul was personally acquainted...") i.e. internal evidence: Please have a glance at this passage from Romans, just a hair breadth distant from the passage cited by stephan huller: Romans 8:31 τι ουν ερουμεν προς ταυτα ει ο θεος υπερ ημων τις καθ ημων Does this sentence, in your opinion, reflect the disposition of someone aware of an imminent attack on the religion, or someone unaffected by the turmoil surrounding the Roman-Jewish Wars I, II, or III? To me, this is a bit like a rallying cry, not a theological explanation. It seems much more likely, given absence of assurance either way, to represent the writing of a person resigned to the forthcoming military conflict, than text devoted to explanation of why God needed a son. If I am seeking a date of authorship for this epistle, or at least a relative date for the initial appearance of this epistle, I have to rely on relatively non-subtle clues in the text. This clue appears relatively solid, to me. Quote:
Since you believe that the two are fundamentally dissimilar, then, why should one antedate the other, absent specific information in the text of either document to clarify initial date of composition? I am reminded of Bart's statement: Quote:
and just how do we know this? Quote:
:huh: |
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03-17-2012, 04:47 AM | #160 | ||||
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tanya, as far as I’m aware, myth is a word that has many connotations. I grant that it’s good to try for clarity in ones use. But wanting to pinpoint one exact ‘true’ definition is a bit like trying to define what the word ‘god’ should mean. I have a few pages photo-copied from a book I read some years ago: Myth In Old Testament Interpretation; J.W. Rogerson. (now out of print, I think). In this book there are 12 different explanations of the term ‘myth’: A short summary, from the book, of these various definitions: ================================= (1) Myths are attempts to explain things. The things so explained can be many and various, including the origin, nature and functioning of the world; the origin of social organisation; social habits and customs; and religious beliefs and practices. Myths may also seek to explain unusual natural phenomena, and the cause of historical events. (2) Myths arise from personifications of natural phenomena. (3) Myths are stories arising from misunderstood descriptions of the working of nature. (4) Myths are narratives about humans and human events, but the narratives are in fact in the first instance derived from astral or similar phenomena. (5) Myth is a mode of cognition distinct from empirical consciousness. (6) A myth is a text inextricably bound up with a rite. The performance of the myth/ritual achieves or preserves the well-being of man and the world. (7) A myth is a text less closely connected with a rite, designed possibly to interest the worshipper or to explain the meaning of a rite where the original meaning and purpose of the latter has been forgotten. (8) A myth is one of a series of narratives which, taken together, enable primitives to solve problems at a level below that of conscious thought by the blurring of binary oppositions. (9) A myth is a narrative which expresses the tensions of a primary existential symbolism. (10) A myth is a single story, or longer stretch of narrative, which expresses the ideals, hopes and faith of a people. (11) Myth is a necessary way of speaking of transcendent reality. (12) A myth is a story about the gods. If it be objected that these definitions are really too vague and qualified to be of any use, I would not quarrel. If the present study only indicates something of the great complexity of the notion of myth, and if it only makes future scholarship more cautious about the use of the concept, then the study will have been worth while. ================================================== Is the gospel JC a myth? Yes, most certainly JC is a myth, i.e. that gospel figure is not a flesh and blood figure - and since there is no historical evidence, that gospel figure is not a historical figure. I don’t know - but maybe some mythicists don’t like to use the term ‘myth’ for the gospel JC. I know that Earl Doherty, some years ago, said that he preferred the use of ‘fiction’ and not myth for this gospel figure. Quote:
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