fast

Okay, from this, I looked it up. There's something in there about unchasity too, but hey, I'm not quite getting it.

Is this presisely interpreted as: A divorce means adultry, with exceptions.

If he divorces, then he necessarily committed adultry? Something is weird here.

fast

What other versus throughout the bible would pertain to this situation? What about timothy?

Diogenes the Cynic

Different denominations are going to interpret this differently but in its historical context it was about the practice of men divorcing women (which basically meant abandoning them, tossing them out of the household) and then remarrying. This was a practice that left the abandoned women in a very bad spot as they were considered damaged goods and could not remarry. It also deprived them of their own children who would remain with the father. These women were forced into poverty or prostitution if they couldn't find someone to support them. It wasn't like they could just go get a job.

The "adultery" was in marrying another woman after putting out a previous wife for no good reason (the one good reason being specified as adultery by the woman).

So Jesus was condemning the practice not so much because it was sexual immorality but more because it was so brutal to the women were tossed out.

This is a condition which obviously no longer exists so the question of whether that admonition is still valid is one that is debated among and within various churches and denominations.
Deuteronomy 24:1 seems to imply that a man may issue a certificate of divorce and put his wife out of his house if she is "displeasing" to him or he "finds something indecent." (yeah, women were pretty much chattel).

The injunction in Timothy is about monogamy, not divorce, but that doesn't mean some denominations won't read it as divorce.

That's pretty much it for Biblical justifications of divorce. There are incidental mentions (Jeremiah 3:8 e.g) which seem to imply that adultery was the main justification associated with it ("adultery" would include a woman who was found not to be a virgin on her wedding night as well).

I'm not aware of another explicit justification for divorce but the Deuteronomy verse is pretty vague.


Your friend's best bet is to convince them that Timothy forbids polygamy, not divorce. He could also explain the historical context of the Matthew quotation. He isn't going to find anything scriptural that will explicitly contradict an interpretation of Timothy as forbidding divorce for Deacons, he's going to have argue the verse as pertaining to polygamy and they'll either buy it or they won't.

fast

Diogenes the Cynic, This has been very helpful and insightful...thank you.

So far, I have seen these referenced:

Matthew 5:31-32
Deuteronomy 24:1
Jeremiah 3:8

Are there others. I still don't know the applicable versus in Timothy

Diogenes the Cynic

The 2 Timothy verse is 2 Tim. 3:2:

"Now the overseer [deacon] must be above reproach, the husband of but one wife, temperate, self-controlled, respectable, hospitable, able to teach."

I also forgot to mention 1 Corinthians 7:12-15 which seems to say that divorce is allowable if either partner is a.) an "unveliever" and b.) does not want to stay married.

"To the rest I say this (I, not the Lord): If any brother has a wife who is not a believer and she is willing to live with him, he must not divorce her. 13And if a woman has a husband who is not a believer and he is willing to live with her, she must not divorce him. 14For the unbelieving husband has been sanctified through his wife, and the unbelieving wife has been sanctified through her believing husband. Otherwise your children would be unclean, but as it is, they are holy.

15But if the unbeliever leaves, [or does not want to stay married] let him [or her] do so. A believing man or woman is not bound in such circumstances; God has called us to live in peace."

If your friend can show that his previous wives were "unbelievers" (however his congregation might define that) then he might have a scriptural defense here.

offa

Timothy is Jesus' son (Justus ...'sp' ... look it up in acts). Mary Magdalene was the mother. A prostitute is one that performs on a stage. A prostitute may be male or female. Our president is a "prostitue"because he gets on the stage and 'lies' for his clientele. Mary Magdalene was a priestess and became a "prostitute" when Paul disallowed women from having a voice in church.
Jesus' spouse was Mary Magdalene. They had a daughter named Phoebe? shortly after the crucifixion. The crucifixion was an ordeal that Jesus went through and finally had to say "uncle". ("Uncle" is an old game played with a handshake. You grasp your opponent's hand and squeeze. Your stare in your viceroy's eyes. When the inferior has had enough he says "uncle". You my torture a clientele (terrorists) until he concedes or lies about it ... says "uncle") Jesus then survived after a six hour torture, after he said "uncle". -- into thy hands I commit my spirit --

Jesus and Mary produced Justus but then St. Paul came on the scene and separated the cults. Mary Magdalene left Jesus. She could not tolerate Paul and she went back to the eastern Christians led by Jesus' younger brother James. Without a spouse (not wife*) Jesus united with a woman who tolerated Paul. (use a search engine in Acts and look for "heart" and you will get her name) So Jesus never officialy divorces. He was abandoned.
*A "wife" is taken from her "husband". A trophy for ancient Jews was getting a wife. David got wives because he "took" them from their spouses. You "take" a wife.

Jesus' daughter "Phoebe" becomes Paul's spouse after he is "shorn like a sheep".


offa

johntheapostate

Are you taking Biblical interpretation classes with Chili. :rolling:

Diogenes the Cynic

No argument here.

offa

No, I am not. But you knew that. My favorite past time is drinking beer. I would love to get Amos going while I am enjoying my passing time. He's a psyche. We would be in la la land together!

offa