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Old 07-10-2007, 08:30 AM   #31
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No. I think Paul is talking about the message of Gentile salvation through faith. That's what he considers 'his' gospel, and that is what he did not get from men but by revelation.

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It is more likely that Paul or whoever wrote the Epistles, had some prior information about Jesus, from some man-made source and then falsely claim to have received this information by 'revelation of Jesus Christ.'

Galations 1:15-16, 'But when it pleased God, who seperated me from my mother's womb, and called me by his gace,
To reveal his Son in me, that I might preach him among the heathen; immediately I conferred not with flesh and blood:

Paul's conversion was not through a 'flesh and blood' Jesus but through a Jesus who was sitting on the right hand of God, see Acts 9, and his 'gospel' was also revealed through those very Gods in heaven, now I find this method of conversion and acquiring knowledge of Jesus highly incredible and devorced of substance.
It isn't knowledge of Jesus that I'm talking about. It is Paul's gospel. That is what was 'revealed' to him: That Gentiles could be saved. That's how Paul came to believe in Jesus as the messiah--he had insight into the GRAND PICTURE of salvation, and Jesus' resurrection is what made that possible. So, Paul certainly could have had knowledge of Jesus' life AND honestly claimed revelation of his gospel--since that was supportable (in his mind) by the OT scriptures. There is no need to conclude that Paul was being dishonest here.

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Old 07-10-2007, 09:04 AM   #32
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Plus, the question is: how strong is your argument regarding Paul.
That is the point of the thread, yes.

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For example, going by the material you quoted, the first time Paul went to Jerusalem he spent 15 days with Cephas and talked with James. If there was such an important figure as a historical founder for the movement, what are the chances neither of those two would have mentioned any details?
I think they probably would have mentioned details. But that is not the only argument. Read Galatians 1-2 again with this question in mind: Does the writer of these chapters sound like he is extremely interested in what the pillars of Jerusalem have to say, the exact content of their message, and the details thereof?

I am sure that Paul did receive some details. High on my list of things he probably received are 1 Corinthians 7.10-11 (the divorce saying); 9.14 (the mission saying); 11.23-25 (the supper tradition); 15.3-8 (the resurrection appearances); and 1 Thessalonians 4.13-5.11 (the apocalyptic scenario). I know that many here prefer to shovel these items off into the category of things received by direct revelation, and that is a live possibility, but in this case it begs the question to do so, since they might also be things that Paul received from the Jerusalem people, especially as they have little inherently to do with the gentile mission.

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Then 14 years later he goes again to Jerusalem and talks with people there. Again nobody mentions the details that are later seen as of paramount importance?
I am sure he probably got details again.

How much, BTW, would you know about a topic if all you had spent on it was a few weeks at most over the last fourteen years?

And does Paul sound like the kind of fellow who would use the details that he received on a regular basis just because he received them? Or does he sound more like he is trying to forge his own path?

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BTW, as for "And I was unknown by face to the churches of Judea which were in Christ," I just read that as saying these churches hadn't heard of him, not that, once he communicated with them, the communication from the side of the churches necessarily left out any and all historical detail.
Your statement once he communicated with them implies that he did indeed, as of the writing of Galatians, communicate with them. How do you know that?

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Old 07-10-2007, 10:30 AM   #33
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I think they probably would have mentioned details. But that is not the only argument. Read Galatians 1-2 again with this question in mind: Does the writer of these chapters sound like he is extremely interested in what the pillars of Jerusalem have to say, the exact content of their message, and the details thereof?
That is the "not interested" argument, not the "he didn't know" argument. It runs into the usual trump-card problems.

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How much, BTW, would you know about a topic if all you had spent on it was a few weeks at most over the last fourteen years?
If I were visiting the place where the philosophy that determines my view of myself and the universe was formed? As much as I could possibly get away with, and that would without the slightest doubt involve as many details about the founder of the movement as I could pry loose from people who had known him, or somehow knew a lot about him.
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And does Paul sound like the kind of fellow who would use the details that he received on a regular basis just because he received them? Or does he sound more like he is trying to forge his own path?
No doubt, he is an own-pather. By the same token though, he sounds smart enough not to throw away trump cards.
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Your statement once he communicated with them implies that he did indeed, as of the writing of Galatians, communicate with them. How do you know that?
I don't, but if he had no contact with them, then they don't seem to bear on the issue?

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Old 07-10-2007, 11:16 AM   #34
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That is the "not interested" argument, not the "he didn't know" argument.
No, it is the he did not know because he was not interested argument.

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It runs into the usual trump-card problems.
I think Paul thought his own gentile commission trumped almost anything.

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If I were visiting the place where the philosophy that determines my view of myself and the universe was formed? As much as I could possibly get away with....
This rings hollow. Even at my most devoted I have never really, really ached to see the holy land or any other place associated with the uprising of Christianity. I think you have to assume that Paul would be interested in the ministry of Jesus (had he known it) in order to argue from it.

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...and that would without the slightest doubt involve as many details about the founder of the movement as I could pry loose from people who had known him, or somehow knew a lot about him.
Paul tells us straight out that he had as few dealings with such people as possible and was determined to know only Christ crucified, yet somehow you think he would have sought out the details of ministry at all costs. Why?

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No doubt, he is an own-pather. By the same token though, he sounds smart enough not to throw away trump cards.
He had no trump cards to throw away when it came to the earthly ministry. If the earthly ministry were the trump card you are making it out to be, Paul would be at an immediate and irrevocable disadvantage; it was too late to know Jesus in the flesh.

Better to concentrate on the cards he did hold, in this case a personal vision and commission from the risen Lord.

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I don't, but if he had no contact with them, then they don't seem to bear on the issue?
Yes, they do. Paul is again emphasizing how little contact he has had with those who were apostles and Christians before him.

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Old 07-10-2007, 11:48 AM   #35
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Where, from Paul, do you get the idea that "the other apostles got the gospel as a witness to Jesus' life"?

Aren't you back-reading later gospel information into it?
No, I discussed this in detail. There are two alternatives to how the apostles mentioned by Paul as coming before him became apostles (i.e, recieved the gospel that they preached):

1. Paul thought these prior apostles were appointed by prior apostles (that are inexplicably unmentioned).

2. Paul thought these prior apostles were were direct witnesses to Jesus' life.

The second is more plausible for the reasons I spelled out. Namely, Paul distinguishes his apostlehood from the other "prior" apostles. The prior apostles also experienced a vision of risen Christ, so that's not the difference. So what is the difference? If it's #1 you would expect Paul to provide some genealogy of the apostles reaching back to Jesus. But he doesn't. He mentions apostles that are either his generation or one generation before him (as evidenced by 1 Corinthians 15:6 that most of the witnesses of the risen Christ are still alive). That's as far as his reach goes, suggesting that this prior generation of apostles was not appointed. Thus the difference has to be the fact that they not only experienced the risen Christ, but the historical Jesus.

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And, since they WERE in essential agreement and without back-reading later gospel ideas of the apostles into it, a simpler conclusion is that the other apostles (like Paul) were actually preaching a similar "revealed" divine being.
This conclusion is implausible for the reasons cited above.
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Old 07-10-2007, 11:55 AM   #36
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I've gone back and forth on that. I suspect that the basic message of salvation through the resurrection of Jesus was common between Paul and the Jerusalem Church. It just doesn't seem possible that Paul would be silent about any significant difference such as that in all of his letters.
He wasn't exactly silent. As I've pointed out on other threads, from Paul's epistles we learn that (a) Jesus descended from David; (b) he preached peace "to those near and those far;" (c) he "accepted" people (i.e., loved them?); (c) that he committed a crime in the eyes of society; (d) that for that crime he was executed with an historical form of capital punishment, crucifixion; (e) that he was buried for three day; (f) that he rose from the dead and had various encounters with apostles and others, and finally with Paul.

This accords with Acts and the synoptics. I don't think it's a coincidence that it does. It relies on a backstory that his audience knew, because he preached it, and that narrative became the basis of the later synoptics.

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Paul's letters are filled with explanations as to why Gentiles are included and what the implications of that are for them. This is his emphasis. The life and times of Jesus were not. I agree that he likely did know a fair amount about Jesus' ministry. This does not imply that letters addressing Gentile salvation should talk about Jesus' teachings or miracles. Those that find significance in such a claimed silence bear the burden of explaining where and why they would expect Paul to have given details.
The epistles aren't gospels. They are simply two different forms of discourse.

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I might point out that we don't know Paul's parents name, nor his birthplace, nor much at all about his pre-Christian life. Nor does Paul talk much about political figures or popular other religious sects/ movements of his day. Should we expect him to have done that? Did they not exist since he didn't mention them? No. It all comes down to the purpose of Paul's writings. Clearly it wasn't to give a biography of Jesus. Nor was it to give even his own version of a biography of a mythical Jesus who did all these things in the sky or 100 years prior. None of that is spelled out. Why? Because he was writing for other purposes.
Nor do we know how Paul died. Given Paul's insistence that he is just a messager and that the focus should be on the gospel, not him, this is all very proper and expected.

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Doherty did the right thing when he came up with his Top 20 silences in Paul. That's what those who argue about Paul's silences need to do. By examining them one by one a person get a sense of just how strong a case there is overall.
Needless to say, I disagree that there are 20 silences, and I disagree as to their meaning. As I have suggested elsewhere the silences actually support an historical Jesus, not the other way round.
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Old 07-10-2007, 12:00 PM   #37
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[
This begs a question, perhaps none of the assembled had any knowledge of the stories that would later became the gospels.

I mean, it seems unlikely that Paul would tell those he preached to far and wide "Yeah, two weeks with Cephas, you know what that's like..." As humans we tend to be curious, and also look to authority. So given the two instincts it seems only natural that Paul would have picked up something?

I also wonder about his general inquisitiveness in Jerusalem. No only did Jesus supposedly die there, but he later rose, so some of those details must have interested Paul if they were available.


Gregg
This begs the larger question which I've dealt with here: if the Jerusalem Church knew nothing or little about the Jesus narrative, how did they get their gospel? From Paul's epistles, the only plausible answer is that they got it from the historical Jesus, which distinguishes their apostlehood from his, something he is at pains to point out.
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Old 07-10-2007, 12:22 PM   #38
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There are two alternatives to how the apostles mentioned by Paul as coming before him became apostles (i.e, recieved the gospel that they preached):

1. Paul thought these prior apostles were appointed by prior apostles (that are inexplicably unmentioned).

2. Paul thought these prior apostles were were direct witnesses to Jesus' life.
Perhaps you ruled this out elsewhere, but what about option 3? Paul thought these prior apostles were direct witnesses of the resurrected Lord.

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Old 07-10-2007, 01:10 PM   #39
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There are two alternatives to how the apostles mentioned by Paul as coming before him became apostles (i.e, recieved the gospel that they preached):

1. Paul thought these prior apostles were appointed by prior apostles (that are inexplicably unmentioned).

2. Paul thought these prior apostles were were direct witnesses to Jesus' life.
Perhaps you ruled this out elsewhere, but what about option 3? Paul thought these prior apostles were direct witnesses of the resurrected Lord.

Ben.

But how is that different from his "appointment" as an apostle, which he claims came through the appearance of the risen Christ in a way that seems exactly how the risen Christ appeared to the other apostles. (at least as described in 1 Cor 15).

If they all became apostles the same way (through a vision of the risen Christ), why does Paul suggest that his apostlehood came about in a different, indeed "freakish", miscarried (ektroma)way?

According to 1 Cor 15, part of this appears to relate to his persecution of the church before becoming an apostle. But this seems to be the flipside of his not experiencing the living Jesus. The apostles knew the living Jesus and were his followers. Paul didn't and was his enemy. Then they all had a vision of the risen Christ.

This seems to be the issues that concern Paul in describing the uniqueness of his apostlehood (as opposed to some doctrinal differences).

Finally, doesn't Gal 1:1 suggest that Paul thought he was sent (as an apostle) in a unique way, directly from the risen Jesus (as opposed to say the apostles who were appointed by the living Jesus or by their successors, who neither knew the living Jesus nor witnessed the risen Jesus)?

Galatians 1:1
Paul, an apostle—sent not from men nor by man, but by Jesus Christ and God the Father, who raised him from the dead—
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Old 07-10-2007, 01:47 PM   #40
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If they all became apostles the same way (through a vision of the risen Christ), why does Paul suggest that his apostlehood came about in a different, indeed "freakish", miscarried (ektroma)way?
He tells us. Because at the same time the other apostles were carrying out their commissions Paul was persecuting the church of God.

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According to 1 Cor 15, part of this appears to relate to his persecution of the church before becoming an apostle. But this seems to be the flipside of his not experiencing the living Jesus.
That may be, but that does not come from this passage itself. It comes from other evidence, right?

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The apostles knew the living Jesus and were his followers. Paul didn't and was his enemy. Then they all had a vision of the risen Christ.
This is a good reconstruction (with the proviso that Paul had his vision late), but it is not the only possible reconstruction. One might also reconstruct as follows:
The apostles knew the risen Jesus and were his followers. Paul did not and was his enemy. Then Paul, too, came to know the risen Jesus.
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This seems to be the issues that concern Paul in describing the uniqueness of his apostlehood (as opposed to some doctrinal differences).
I agree there was no fundamental doctrinal difference; but I insist that the main issue that distinguished the apostlehood of Paul from the apostlehood of those in Christ before him was the commission to the gentiles. That is a difference of emphasis, not of doctrine, since Paul acknowledges that the pillars extended the right hand to him on this matter. IOW, they were not opposed to his gentile mission, though they themselves were not involved in it.

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Finally, doesn't Gal 1:1 suggest that Paul thought he was sent (as an apostle) in a unique way, directly from the risen Jesus (as opposed to say the apostles who were appointed by the living Jesus or by their successors, who neither knew the living Jesus nor witnessed the risen Jesus)?
I do not think so. I think what Paul is emphasizing here is what he regularly says in his other epistolary greetings (but without such emphasis), namely that he is an apostle sent by God, not by some church (not by men) like the brethren of 2 Corinthians 8.23 (for example). IOW, he is placing himself in the same category as Cephas and company (apostles directly commissioned by God or Christ), not in a different category.

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