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Old 06-06-2008, 11:06 AM   #71
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Well said and I agree. Jesus had minimal historical footprint and so it makes sense that there would be no accurate historical records to correct the legendary ones.
And, I wonder, do we also agree that such an HJ is an invalid hypothesis?

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Old 06-06-2008, 11:14 AM   #72
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That's it for me folks. I would be interested in Vinni's response if he does respond, but I won't be able to check until next week.

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Old 06-06-2008, 09:50 PM   #73
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That Paul did not mention the virgin birth is my #1 reason for saying that it is a legend (not in Mark is a slightly different matter)

....I would have thought the #1 reason would be that, it's impossible for virgins to give birth to males.
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Old 06-07-2008, 08:35 AM   #74
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That Paul did not mention the virgin birth is my #1 reason for saying that it is a legend (not in Mark is a slightly different matter)

....I would have thought the #1 reason would be that, it's impossible for virgins to give birth to males.

Yep. I omitted the obvious. ----Kris
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Old 06-09-2008, 10:29 AM   #75
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That's it for me folks. I would be interested in Vinni's response if he does respond, but I won't be able to check until next week.

Kris

I was attending my daughter’s college graduation so I was gone for the weekend as well.

I would go back to the nature of the book. As a historian of Roman society, Sherwin-White was commenting on the accounts of Jesus’ trial and the discussions of Paul’s citizenship and how they lined up with what he knew about Roman law and practice at the time. For the purpose of his book there was no need to make any overall determination of the ratio of legend to fact in the gospels and I don’t find any evidence that he did so. I have no doubt that he had an opinion on the subject, but I find no assertions that are not equally consistent with fact-to-fiction ratios of either 95%-5% or 5%-95%.

I think it would be like a Civil War scholar commenting on the extent to which Gone with the Wind gets historical details right. The scholar would no doubt have an opinion on the extent to which Margaret Mitchell’s tale came from actual events that she heard about from her parents and grandparents and the extent to which it came out of her own imagination, but he would not have to reach any firm conclusion on this in order to discuss whether Mitchell got known facts right.

My perspective is that of a lawyer rather than a historian. When a lawyer seeks to use a judicial opinion for precedent, he has to be wary of the fact that judges tend to run off at the mouth. In deciding a case, a judge may comment on a number of legal issues that really weren’t necessary to decide the case before him. In legal parlance, such comments are considered obiter dictum which are not binding. Only those legal conclusions that were necessitated by the facts of the case are considered precedent for later courts.

Sherwin-White acknowledges in his preface that he is an amateur in the field of New Testament scholarship. He is very careful to hedge his comments on the historicity of the gospels for this reason. His book was concerned with a very small segment of the New Testament stories. His book did not require him to make any overall conclusions about how much of the gospels were legend and how much were fact. It did not require any original research to develop any precise rule to estimate the overall percentages of legend and fact in any ancient document. Given that, I think it makes sense to view his comments about legendary accumulation as casual observations.

As far as whether any such rule is generally accepted among historians, I can say that my internet searches didn’t turn up anyone other than Christian apologists citing such a rule. The only historian I have heard from is Richard Carrier who was kind enough to compliment my posts on Sherwin-White.
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Old 06-09-2008, 10:42 AM   #76
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....I would have thought the #1 reason would be that, it's impossible for virgins to give birth to males.
Only females?

Ben.
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Old 06-09-2008, 12:19 PM   #77
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....I would have thought the #1 reason would be that, it's impossible for virgins to give birth to males.
Only females?

Ben.
Heh, this has come up here before. The distinction of male offspring is important oddly enough: Parthenogenesis


I couldn't get the original link to work despite that it appeared to be correct so I changed it from wiki tags to url tags. I've added this because it is too long an explanation to fit in the Reason for Editing box
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Old 06-09-2008, 12:23 PM   #78
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http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/1483688Maybe it is possible for an XXY person to be functionally female and give birth to a male by parthenogenesis?
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On one hand, it's easy for me to see myself as an intersexual. Not all intersexuals are sterile. From high school biology, we all remember that a normal woman has a chromosome identity of XX and a normal man has XY. Some men have XYY. There is a condition with the identity of XXY. Some XXY people present as male, some as female. In general, XXY males are sterile and XXY females may or may not be sterile. The condition of being an XXY has two syndromes - groups of characteristics, Turner's if it's a female and Kleinfelter's if it's a male. I don't have Turner's characteristics, and I have too many female characteristics to have Kleinfelter's.
http://www.notjustskin.org/en/Story-Susan.html
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Females with XY gonadal dysgenesis are sterile, due to degeneration of the initially present ovaries into nonfunctional streak gonads. Some of these sex-reversal cases can be attributed to mutation or deletion of the SRY gene. We now describe an SRY-deleted 47,XXY female who has one son and two daughters, and one of her daughters has the same 47,XXY karyotype. PCR and FISH analysis revealed that the mother carries a structurally altered Y chromosome that most likely resulted from an aberrant X-Y interchange between the closely related genomic regions surrounding the gene pair PRKX and PRKY on Xp22.3 and Yp11.2, respectively. As a consequence, Yp material, including SRY, has been replaced by terminal Xp sequences up to the PRKX gene. The fertility of the XXY mother can be attributed to the presence of the additional X chromosome that is missing in XY gonadal dysgenesis females. To our knowledge, this is the first human XXY female described who is fertile.
http://content.karger.com/produktedb...&file=ccg91204
In mice, XXY can be associated with good female fertility.
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Tdy-negative XY, XXY and XYY female mice: breeding data and synaptonemal complex analysis
http://www.reproduction-online.org/c...tract/97/1/151
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Old 06-09-2008, 12:39 PM   #79
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Only females?

Ben.
Heh, this has come up here before. The distinction of male offspring is important oddly enough: Parthenogenesis
Well, I admit that is a new one on me, and I am glad you linked to it. Who would have guessed? Very interesting, at any rate.

I am supposing from a cursory skimming of that article that this kind of parthenogenesis has not yet been documented among humans, correct?

Ben.
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Old 06-09-2008, 12:42 PM   #80
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Never naturally among mammals as far as I know.
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Induced parthenogenesis in mice and monkeys often results in abnormal development. This is because mammals have imprinted genetic regions, where either the maternal or the paternal chromosome is inactivated in the offspring in order for development to proceed normally. A mammal created by parthenogenesis would thus have double doses of maternally imprinted genes and lack paternally imprinted genes, leading to developmental abnormalities if any were present in the genes of the mother. As a consequence, research on human parthenogenesis is focused on the production of embryonic stem cells for use in medical treatment, not as a reproductive strategy.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parthenogenesis#Mammals
I think genes can be switched on and off though so technically it ought to be possible to switch on either male or female phenotype in an XXY individual, allowing a female XXY individual to produce a clone of either sex by parthenogenesis. There are merely technological hurdles to overcome.
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