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Old 02-14-2006, 11:00 AM   #511
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Default response to post #490

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
You once said that personal experience is an important part of your religious beliefs. I challenge to you start a new thread about your personal experiences,
i'm not interested in a thread about subjective personal experiences. what value would that be to anyone? none. if i wanted to do that, i would write a book.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
and I predict that you will refuse to accept my challenge
i don't consider it a challenge. therefore, i don't consider my response a refusal.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
because of your past failures to provide adequate proof of your assertions.
hmm. i was unaware of these failures. perhaps you could point them out.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Is it your position that God did not create Hurricane Katrina and send it to New Orleans. If so, I would find that to be quite strange.
sigh. God allows suffering. revisit the other thread if you are still confused.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
But you said that the specifics of the Tyre prophecy can be adequately defended without mentioning Ezekiel's reputation as a prophet.
you didn't answer the question.
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Old 02-14-2006, 11:08 AM   #512
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Default response to post #492

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
On what evidence do you base this assertion?
the text itself. it's what it says.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Even if Jesus rose from the dead, there is no proof whatsoever that his shed blood and death remitted the sins of mankind, nor is there any proof whatsoever that he was conceived by the Holy Spirit and never committed a sin.
what evidence could there be other than what the bible says?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Rather, that is what some anoymous Gospel writers SAID that Jesus said based upon evidence that was second hand at best, and quite possibly third hand, fourth hand, or even worse. Of course, none of those claims became available in print until decades after Jesus, Paul, and some of the disicples had died.
that is no different than the date listed in ezekiel 26:1. let's list the reasons why you have to doubt what Jesus said.
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Old 02-14-2006, 02:59 PM   #513
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Default response to post #493

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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
No, that is how you are interpreting it.
no, that is what it says.



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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
Maybe you could argue that it is a good interpretation. Maybe you could argue that it is the only reasonable interpretation. But it does not say "Here is the line between Christians and non-Christians."
yes, it says precisely that.



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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
Nowhere in any of that does Paul say: Everybody who does [or believes] X is a Christian, and all others are not Christians.
yes, that is precisely what he is saying



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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
He is discussing the requirements for salvation.
bingo. same thing.



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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
You are assuming that saved = Christians.
no assumption. it is indeed the primary qualification for becoming christian and the primary component of being christian. it is the embodiment of being christian. one cannot be christian without it and everything else a christian does from that point on is an outworking of salvation. a person is a christian because they are saved. there weren't christians in the 1st century. they were hebrews who were called followers of "the way". what is common to both groups is salvation.



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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
OK, produce the quotations. Quote Jesus where he said that Paul meant what you say he meant.
john 14:6. same thing



Quote:
Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
Quote Paul where he explains his intended meaning.
romans 10:9



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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
Quote the church fathers responsible for compiling the canon where they interpreted this passage the same way you are interpreting it.
why them? i've already quoted the bible itself. what more do you need?
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Old 02-14-2006, 03:01 PM   #514
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Default response to post #494

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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
I assume you're referring to John 14:16: Jesus answered, "I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me.

What did he mean by "comes to the Father"? What did he mean by "through me"?
salvation



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How do you know that?
Jesus elaborates in john 3. it's all part of the same idea.
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Old 02-14-2006, 04:46 PM   #515
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Default A simple invalidation of the Tyre prophecy

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
What I am most interested in is reliable criteria for determining whether God is good, or whether he is an evil God who is masquerading as a good God. An evil God would easily be able to duplicate anything that the Bible attributes to God. Are you aware of any such criteria?
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
Yes, the ontological argument or the Bible. I guess you could even throw in the anthropological argument as well.
Since an evil God could easily duplicate anything that is attributed to the God of the Bible, the Bible is not of any value to you. Regarding the ontological argument, you have yet to quote even one single ontological argument. If you don’t quote any, I will assume that you don’t have any that you are confident in. Ontology is quite complicated. Most people, including me, don’t know much about it, and many people have never even heard of it. I thought that ontology deals primarily with the existence of God, not his character. You need to quote your sources. Please do not expect me to do your homework for you. You brought up ontology, so it is up to do to post a reasonably detailed ontological argument complete with at least several sources.

If intelligent design is a given, the conversion of energy into matter deals with physics, not with morality. Even if ontology did deal with morality, if God is amoral, that would defeat the ontological argument since an amoral God would sometimes do good things.

What evidence do you have that the God of the Bible is the uncaused first cause?
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Old 02-15-2006, 01:50 AM   #516
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Originally Posted by bfniii
unfulfilled prophecies would immediately exclude that person from being considered a prophet since that would obviously undermine the authority of the office. among the jews, prophetic accuracy is one of the factors that determines whether or not a person is a prophet.
Yes, there was such a rule, but it wasn't rigidly enforced. You haven't actually established that Ezekiel's rant against Tyre WAS regarded as an actual, official "prophecy" (after all, he wasn't describing a distant future event), and it seems that a certain amount of exaggerated hyperbole was permitted in such rants (the apologist Robert Turkel, a.k.a. "J. P. Holding" refers to this as "trash talk").

Also, even apologists recognize that many prophecies simply never came to pass, and and have concocted a hirearchy of "conditional prophecies":

1. God promises a cataclysm if the people don't mend their ways, the people DO mend their ways, God doesn't implement the cataclysm.

2. As above, but the conditional nature of the prophecy isn't specified: God promises a cataclysm, the people mend their ways, God doesn't implement the cataclysm.

3. As above, but the Bible doesn't specify the reason for the non-event: God promises a cataclysm, God doesn't implement the cataclysm, presumably it was conditional and the people mended their ways.

Of course, such doctrines make the apologist conveniently oblivious to ANY failed prophecy.

There is also an apologetic belief that God himself doesn't have perfect foreknowledge of events dependent on human actions (because of human free will). From an avowed "inerrantist" here:
Quote:
God knew the probability that an event would happen. If God predicts an event will happen (e.g Nebuchadnezzer will capture Tyre) and it does not happen then it was an unstated conditional and God knew the probability was good that it would happen but that there was a low probability that it would not. God was not wrong for there was a lower probability that it might not occur.
So, God was not wrong, except that he was wrong.

In general, I see no reason to assume that ancient Jewish apologists were any less wilfully blind than modern Christian ones.
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Old 02-15-2006, 07:26 AM   #517
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
that is how you are interpreting it.
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
no, that is what it says.
Against that sort of obstinate dogmatism, there is nothing more I can say except that I do know how to read English and I do know how to tell the difference between a text and an interpretation thereof.
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Old 02-15-2006, 11:36 AM   #518
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Default response to post #499

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Surely the aforementioned scriptures do not rule out a reasonable possibility that God is amoral.
you are confusing just with amoral.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
If he is amoral, that would explain a lot about why he helps mankind on some occasions, but hurts mankind on other occasions
you're still missing the point, from the other thread, that there is purpose in suffering. from that perspective, He is not amoral.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
(Exodus 4:11 and Hurricane Katrina being two examples of God deliberately hurting people),
no, they are not. that is just your mistaken perception which i addressed in the other thread



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
and frequently refuses to help those who need his help the most,
you have nothing to base this statement on. He has never refused to help



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
such as people who are starving to death, are quadriplegic, who have severe case of multiple sclerosis, and who have severe cases of cerebral palsy.
there is no standard whatsoever to determine that those people need more help than others. it may be a different kind of help, but not more. there is absolutely no way to quantify suffering or pain. it is relative to the individual.



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
You have asked me why God should stop there.
yes, a question you never really answered from the other thread. go figure.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Well, that is exactly the point. Why should he stop there? Matthew 14:14 says "And Jesus went forth, and saw a great multitude, and was moved with compassion toward them, and he healed their sick." Obviously, Jesus' compassion was quite limited. You most certainly would not ask me why an amoral God would stop there, because it would be quite natural for him to be inconsistent like the God of the Bible is.
the passage you quote does nothing to show that Jesus' compassion was limited. what you are missing is the point that Jesus' atonement was not limited. it was for jew and gentile alike. also, you never resolved the sliding scale you are using regarding healing/compassion. why is your idea of who should get healed/relieved the correct idea? where does your amount of healing/relief stop and why there?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
As far as I know, the ontological argument deals with the existence of God, not his nature.
not wholly.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Other than the ridiculous Tyre prophecy, please give us several other examples of Ezekiel's prophecies that you believe offer good evidence of divine inspiration.
examples of prophecy aren't going to determine divine inspiration. i'm sorry you haven't caught to that after 500+ posts.
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Old 02-16-2006, 10:30 AM   #519
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Default A simple invalidation of the Tyre prophecy

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Surely the aforementioned scriptures do not rule out a reasonable possibility that God is amoral.
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
You are confusing just with amoral.
Please tell us how an amoral God would act any differently than the God of the Bible.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
As far as I know, the ontological argument deals with the existence of God, not his nature.
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
Not wholly.
Well by all means, please post your sources that state that the ontological argument reasonably proves that God must by definition be good. You haven’t even quoted one single source regarding ontology. How in the world can anyone know what you are talking about unless you quote your sources? If intelligent design is a given, the conversion of energy into matter deals solely with physics, not with morality. Even is there is an uncaused first cause, and even if he is good, there is not any credible evidence at all that the God of the Bible is the uncaused first cause.

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
The texts say that if it were possible, even the elect would be deceived.
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
Not permanently.
Why not?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
The NASB says "I will make you a bare rock." We don't know what Ezekiel meant. He might have meant completely bare, almost completely bare, or some other version of bare.
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
You've got to be kidding, right? bare means not like it used to be, whatever you used to have, you don't now. Bare means uncovered or unsupported. Being made bare means a higher authority is going to reduce the extent or influence of the rock (Tyre).
I thought that you were kidding. Following are some of the Merriam Webster’s Online Dictionary definitions for the word “bare�:

Unfurnished or scantily supplied b : DESTITUTE <bare of ALL [emphasis mine] safeguards>

Having NOTHING [emphasis mine] left over or added.

Devoid of amplification or adornment [by implication devoid of ANY amplification or adornment.]

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
We don't know what the mainland settlement looked like after Alexander completed building his bridge to the island settlement. The mainland settlement was built upon rocky ground, so between the available rocks and the substantial remains of the mainland settlement, what was left might not have come anywhere close to resembling "a bare rock."
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
He's referring metaphorically to the city-state, not entirely to the physical city. this is not uncommon in biblical prophecies.
Tyre was not a metaphor. It was an actual city, and Ezekiel predicted that that actual city would become a bare rock. However, there is not any indication that such was the case. Regarding “this is not uncommon in biblical prophecies,� please quote your scripture references.

Ezekiel 26:14 says “And I will make thee like the top of a rock: thou shalt be a place to spread nets upon; thou shalt be built no more: for I the Lord have spoken it, saith the Lord God.� Tyre was partially rebuilt on a number of occasions. In addition, there are currently some buildings where the mainland settlement was. Further, historically, many cities were never rebuilt at all.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Actually, it would have been surprising if the inhabitants had not used fishing nets and spread them out to dry.
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
Where buildings used to be? Yes, that would be remarkable.
I don’t understand what you mean. Surely nets were spread to dry before Nebuchadnezzar attacked the mainland settlement, AND after he went home after failing to destroy the mainland settlement.

Ezekiel 26:7-11 say “For thus saith the Lord GOD; Behold, I will bring upon Tyrus Nebuchadrezzar king of Babylon, a king of kings, from the north, with horses, and with chariots, and with horsemen, and companies, and much people. He shall slay with the sword thy daughters in the field: and he shall make a fort against thee, and cast a mount against thee, and lift up the buckler against thee. And he shall set engines of war against thy walls, and with his axes he shall break down thy towers. By reason of the abundance of his horses their dust shall cover thee: thy walls shall shake at the noise of the horsemen, and of the wheels, and of the chariots, when he shall enter into thy gates, as men enter into a city wherein is made a breach.
With the hoofs of his horses shall he tread down all thy streets: he shall slay thy people by the sword, and thy strong garrisons shall go down to the ground.�

There is no credible evidence that Nebuchadnezzar tread down ALL of the streets of the mainland settlement with his chariots. In fact, the best evidence indicates that he did not.

Consider the following:

http://www.middleeast.com/tyre.htm

Nebuchadnezzar, King of Babylon, laid siege to the walled city for thirteen years. Tyre stood firm, but it was probable that at this time the residents of the mainland city abandoned it for the safety of the island.

It was often attacked by Egypt, besieged by Shalmaneser III, who was assisted by the Phoenicians of the mainland, for five years, and by Nebuchadnezzar (586–573 BC) for thirteen years, apparently without success, although a compromise peace was made in which Tyre paid tribute to the Babylonians.

Britannica 2003 Deluxe Edition:

For much of the 8th and 7th centuries BC the town was subject to Assyria, and in 585–573 it successfully withstood a prolonged siege by the Babylonian king Nebuchadrezzar II.

I assume that the vast majority of non-Jews in the Middle East did not pay any attention Ezekiel's prophecies. Do you have any evidence to the contrary? Why would God favor the Jews to the exclusion of the rest of the people in the world? What evidence do you have that God made a land promise to Abraham? Are you an inerrantist? If so, why?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
The only way that skeptics can be fairly held accountable for rejecting the God of the Bible is if they know that he exists and still reject him.
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
Or if they are resisting the knowledge that God exists.
It wouldn’t have to be that way if Jesus showed up and clearly revealed his supernatural powers to everyone. When I told you that some time ago, you said that I would have no means of identifying Jesus. I asked you how you would be able to identify Jesus, but as far as I recall, you never answered my question. What is your answer? Even if I couldn’t identify Jesus, if a powerful being showed up who claimed to be Jesus, and demonstrated that he had abilities that were far beyond the abilities of humans, at least we would have a lot more evidence than we have now that the Bible is true.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
If God exists, if he clearly revealed himself to everyone,…
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
Romans 2:14-16.
Romans 2:14 says “For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves.� The verse does not have anything to do with what I am talking about. Consider the following scriptures:

John 2:23 Now when he was in Jerusalem at the passover, in the feast day, many believed in his name, when they saw the miracles which he did.

John 3:2 The same came to Jesus by night, and said unto him, Rabbi, we know that thou art a teacher come from God: for no man can do these miracles that thou doest, except God be with him.

John 6:2 And a great multitude followed him, because they saw his miracles which he did on them that were diseased.

1 Corinthians 15:6 After that, he was seen of above five hundred brethren at once; of whom the greater part remain unto this present, but some are fallen asleep.

Johnny: Even after all of that supposed evidence, and even though the Holy Spirit had supposedly come to the church, for some strange reason, even more evidence was provided. In the NIV, Acts 14:3 So Paul and Barnabas spent considerable time there, speaking boldly for the Lord, who confirmed the message of his grace by enabling them to do miraculous signs and wonders.

The preceding evidence is the kind of evidence that I am talking about. If the evidence was needed then, we need it much more today. We don’t have any eyewitnesses around to verify that Jesus rose from the dead. Why were any eyewitnesses needed? Wouldn’t 100,000 eyewitnesses have been much better than 500? For that matter, why didn’t Jesus appear to everyone in the world? Today, there is no evidence that God selectively heals people of his choice. There is every indication that good things and bad things are distributed according to the laws of physics, or by an amoral God. I challenge you to state a request for a tangible blessing that you could ask God for that you would receive, and reasonably prove that you wouldn’t have gotten your blessing anyway. I predict that you will refuse to accept my challenge because you don’t want to embarrass yourself.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Surely some skeptics would become Christians.
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
Not necessarily.
It would be easy to prove that I am right. A poll could be taken that would ask the following question: If a being showed up on earth, claimed to be Jesus, created a large building in front of millions of people and the world media, would you become a Christian? Many people would surely answer yes, but even if only one person answered yes, if Jesus exists, he should show up and demonstrate his supernatural powers to that person.
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Old 02-16-2006, 11:55 AM   #520
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Default A simple invalidation of the Tyre prophecy

Message to bfniii: Please explain why God killed unborn children at Sodom and Gommorah and Tyre.
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