FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Today at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 05-21-2011, 01:46 AM   #11
Contributor
 
Join Date: Jun 2000
Location: Los Angeles area
Posts: 40,549
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by hjalti View Post
What's a Jesus-birther?
It is an insulting way of referring to people who do not think there is a good case for a historical Jesus.

If I had more energy, I would edit the phrase out.
Toto is offline  
Old 05-21-2011, 02:16 AM   #12
Regular Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2009
Location: Birmingham, AL
Posts: 400
Default

With all due respect, when someone disagrees with a bunch of translators, he sure as heck has the burden of proof.

I am delighted to have spin make his list. Quite unnecessary as my position regards the phrase 'brother of the lord' or 'lord's brother' not 'brother'.

So my challenge to spin is to list out every verse in the Pauline epistles with those terms Maybe the whole new testament. Lets toss in offices in the ancient church with the title of brother of the lord or lord's brother. Perhaps some theological arguments of how a human can be a brother to Christ. I've heard brother in Christ as a term or brotherhood of Christ referring to male Christians, but brother of Christ escapes me.

Here is a key word search of the term lord's brother http://www.biblegateway.com/keyword/...1=31&bookset=2

ditto for the term brother of the lord. http://www.biblegateway.com/keyword/...1=31&bookset=2

In short, the issue is not 'brother' but the phrases 'lord's brother' or 'brother of the lord'.
jgoodguy is offline  
Old 05-21-2011, 02:27 AM   #13
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jun 2006
Location: The Netherlands
Posts: 3,397
Default

All very interesting, but we do, in fact have evidence from antiquity, late second/early third century that this passage was disputed. So, before anyone get's too wrapped around trying to interpret Paul's meaning, the first order of business is to show that Paul actually wrote this.
dog-on is offline  
Old 05-21-2011, 02:30 AM   #14
Regular Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2009
Location: Birmingham, AL
Posts: 400
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by hjalti View Post
What's a Jesus-birther?

It is a derogatory term for Jesus myther based off of the US political term birther. It implies that Jesus mythers are irrational.

I am a Jesus agnostic which imeans that the available evidence is too uncertain to determine if there was a historical or mystical Jesus and irrationally is implied by being awake at 4:30 AM to debate the issue.
jgoodguy is offline  
Old 05-21-2011, 02:48 AM   #15
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2003
Location: Iceland
Posts: 761
Default

Quote:
It is a derogatory term for Jesus myther based off of the US political term birther. It implies that Jesus mythers are irrational.
It seems to imply that mythers are what bat-sh** crazy.


Quote:
Some Jesus-birthers say: “Maybe Galatians 1:19 is an interpolation.”

An interpolator of Paul has no more apparent reason to lie than Paul himself, and this claim is improbable for the same reasons as above.
This is a strange rebuttal. I just happen to think that Gal 1:19 is a part of a later interpolation, but I don't see how that would imply that the interpolator was lying if this is to be understood as James being the brother of Jesus. Then we would simply have this belief in a James the brother of Jesus in the 2nd century.

And why is the interpolation claim improbable? Or is "this claim" only that the interpolator was "lying" not that it's an interpolation'


Quote:
Some Jesus-birthers say: “Maybe the Epistle to the Galatians was forged.”

No, the Epistle to the Galatians was written by Paul. In this letter, Paul makes enemies with other heroes of the early Christian church--Peter (Cephas), James and John--over the matter of whether or not Gentiles should be accepted into the faith. He writes that he opposes Cephas to his face (Galatians 2:11). This is something that we expect Paul may write, but we would never expect a later Christian to write such a thing. Like any other member of a cult or a religion, a writer is always interested in the founding figures being in agreement with the writer, not divided among themselves. For example, the author of the book of Acts, telling of the same event (the Council of Jerusalem), portrays it as a peaceful occasion where all members are in agreement.
Wait a minute, we would never expect a later Christian to write that Paul was opposed and condemned Peter? What about Marcionites?
hjalti is offline  
Old 05-21-2011, 03:00 AM   #16
Regular Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2009
Location: Birmingham, AL
Posts: 400
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by dog-on View Post
All very interesting, but we do, in fact have evidence from antiquity, late second/early third century that this passage was disputed. So, before anyone get's too wrapped around trying to interpret Paul's meaning, the first order of business is to show that Paul actually wrote this.
The interpolators strike again.

I think showing Paul actually wrote anything is a bit difficult. Interpolations are an order more difficult.
jgoodguy is offline  
Old 05-21-2011, 03:02 AM   #17
Regular Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2009
Location: Birmingham, AL
Posts: 400
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by hjalti View Post
Quote:
It is a derogatory term for Jesus myther based off of the US political term birther. It implies that Jesus mythers are irrational.
It seems to imply that mythers are what bat-sh** crazy.


Quote:
Some Jesus-birthers say: “Maybe Galatians 1:19 is an interpolation.”

An interpolator of Paul has no more apparent reason to lie than Paul himself, and this claim is improbable for the same reasons as above.
This is a strange rebuttal. I just happen to think that Gal 1:19 is a part of a later interpolation, but I don't see how that would imply that the interpolator was lying if this is to be understood as James being the brother of Jesus. Then we would simply have this belief in a James the brother of Jesus in the 2nd century.

And why is the interpolation claim improbable? Or is "this claim" only that the interpolator was "lying" not that it's an interpolation'


Quote:
Some Jesus-birthers say: “Maybe the Epistle to the Galatians was forged.”

No, the Epistle to the Galatians was written by Paul. In this letter, Paul makes enemies with other heroes of the early Christian church--Peter (Cephas), James and John--over the matter of whether or not Gentiles should be accepted into the faith. He writes that he opposes Cephas to his face (Galatians 2:11). This is something that we expect Paul may write, but we would never expect a later Christian to write such a thing. Like any other member of a cult or a religion, a writer is always interested in the founding figures being in agreement with the writer, not divided among themselves. For example, the author of the book of Acts, telling of the same event (the Council of Jerusalem), portrays it as a peaceful occasion where all members are in agreement.
Wait a minute, we would never expect a later Christian to write that Paul was opposed and condemned Peter? What about Marcionites?
The problem with interpolations is showing they actually happened, not they are possible.

I should have written that the term birther is inflammatory. :angry:
jgoodguy is offline  
Old 05-21-2011, 03:05 AM   #18
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jun 2006
Location: The Netherlands
Posts: 3,397
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by jgoodguy View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by dog-on View Post
All very interesting, but we do, in fact have evidence from antiquity, late second/early third century that this passage was disputed. So, before anyone get's too wrapped around trying to interpret Paul's meaning, the first order of business is to show that Paul actually wrote this.
The interpolators strike again.

I think showing Paul actually wrote anything is a bit difficult. Interpolations are an order more difficult.
Like I said, the evidence shows that this passage was disputed in antiquity. This is not something I pulled out of my ass. So, unless we deal with all of the evidence, all we will end up with are sore monkeys...
dog-on is offline  
Old 05-21-2011, 03:08 AM   #19
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2003
Location: Iceland
Posts: 761
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by jgoodguy View Post
The problem with interpolations is showing they actually happened, not they are possible.
It's actually quite easy to show that Gal 1.19 is an interpolation:

1.If Gal 1.19 isn't an interpolation, then Jesus was an actual historical person.
2. We know that can't be true, Jesus was a god who existed in the heavens.
-> Gal 1.19 is an interpolation.
hjalti is offline  
Old 05-21-2011, 03:10 AM   #20
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by jgoodguy View Post
With all due respect, when someone disagrees with a bunch of translators, he sure as heck has the burden of proof.

I am delighted to have spin make his list. Quite unnecessary as my position regards the phrase 'brother of the lord' or 'lord's brother' not 'brother'.
In other words you are merely being arbitrary and fixing your claim so it cannot be falsified because it is not based on any verifiable evidence.

Quote:
Originally Posted by jgoodguy View Post
So my challenge to spin is to list out every verse in the Pauline epistles with those terms Maybe the whole new testament.
We are working with Paul so as to understand how he uses language. We can be sure of some coherence on his part.

Quote:
Originally Posted by jgoodguy View Post
Lets toss in offices in the ancient church with the title of brother of the lord or lord's brother. Perhaps some theological arguments of how a human can be a brother to Christ. I've heard brother in Christ as a term or brotherhood of Christ referring to male Christians, but brother of Christ escapes me.

Here is a key word search of the term lord's brother http://www.biblegateway.com/keyword/...1=31&bookset=2
The translation "the lord's brother" is tendentious, as it involves an English structure which means something a little more specific than "the brother of the lord".

Quote:
Originally Posted by jgoodguy View Post
In short, the issue is not 'brother' but the phrases 'lord's brother' or 'brother of the lord'.
No it's not, unless you want to say that you cannot justify your sense any other way than to say you know what Paul means when he says brother in this specific example without being able to justify it from the way Paul has used the term every other place. The burden is for you to show that Paul is using "brother" differently. Get on with it and stop the special pleading.
spin is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 08:51 PM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.