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10-06-2007, 06:52 AM | #11 |
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Location of papyrus described here:
Rohl’s biggest discovery, though, was in finding the evidence for the Exodus in the Thirteenth Dynasty. His findings are summarized by John Fulton, a supporter of David Rohl: ‘Before Moses, the Bible records that the Israelites were enslaved by their Egyptian hosts (Exodus 1:8-14). In the Brooklyn Museum (p.276, fig. 310) resides a papyrus scroll numbered Brooklyn 35:1446 which was acquired in the late 19th century by Charles Wilbour. This dates to the reign of Sobekhotep III, the predecessor of Neferhotep I and so the pharaoh who reigned one generation before Moses. This papyrus is a decree by the pharaoh for a transfer of slaves. Of the 95 names of slaves mentioned in the letter, 50% are Semitic in origin. What is more, it lists the names of these slaves in the original Semitic language and then adds the Egyptian name each had been assigned, which is something the Bible records the Egyptians as doing, cf. Joseph’s name given to him by pharaoh (Genesis 41:45). Some of the Semitic names are biblical and include:- Menahem, Issachar, Asher, and Shiprah (cf. Exodus 1:15-21). |
10-06-2007, 06:58 AM | #12 |
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Consilience, Pappy Jack ... evidence of Hebrew slaves ... Manetho's statement ... sudden ending of 13th dynasty ... proven history of Jewish accuracy in keeping meticulous historical records and transmitting them accurately (Dead Sea Scrolls and other examples) ... other items listed above. Taken together it all makes a strong case for the historicity of Exodus.
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10-06-2007, 07:04 AM | #13 | ||
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10-06-2007, 07:06 AM | #14 | |
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Notice this little sleight of hand:
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10-06-2007, 07:10 AM | #15 | |
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It is interesting to note that even though God promised Abraham and his descendants all of the land of Canaan, there is not any historical evidence that Jews have ever occupied all of the land of Canaan. They certainly don't today. If God really wants people to believe that the Bible is true, it is quite odd that he withholds lots of evidence that would convince more people to believe that it is true, unless he does not exist. Logically, the latter possibility is more probable than the former possibility. If there are not any reasonable motives why God does what he does, it is probable that he has not done what the Bible says that he has done. It is a ridiculous notion that God would want to reveal and conceal evidence at the same time. Withholding useful evidence could not possibly benefit God or anyone else. |
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10-06-2007, 07:11 AM | #16 | |
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Because I have a different view of this: I think none of this "evidence" has anything but the most tangential bearing on the question at hand, and has to be laboriously assembled by wishful thinkers to make a case for a precommitted conclusion. This is not what I consider "consilience". Quite the contrary. |
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10-06-2007, 07:19 AM | #17 | |
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You think it's incredible that modern scholars doubt this account. I find it incredible that anyone takes it seriously. |
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10-06-2007, 07:58 AM | #18 | |||||||||
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Let's dissect this latest bit of afdave used-car salesmanship.
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But on a serious note: "many modern scholars"? How about "all modern scholars" - except fundamentalist "scholars" who have signed oaths committing themselves to Biblical literalism, regardless of what any extra-biblical evidence might be? Can you name any? Quote:
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10-06-2007, 08:04 AM | #19 |
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Also, I think it's worth noting that - consistent with the whole argumentum ad nebulam style of discourse, afdave would rather bring up all this extremely thin and highly - to put it kindly - debatable "evidence", raising yet another fog of vague, indirect, ambiguous, inconclusive suggestions, than lay to rest the "2 = 14" controversy, that he says is so obvious he falls out of his chair laughing at the notion that we skeptics can't see it...
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10-06-2007, 08:14 AM | #20 | |
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This is poor scholarship IMHO. |
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