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Old 04-23-2007, 08:48 PM   #51
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What?
That's been my response to your attempts at reducing everything into one melting pot.

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I've never said that in any post. I don't have a "guy." You seem to be grasping at straws. Indeed, it is you who have the "guy", since you seem determine to privilege certain "historical" texts for unknown reasons using unknown standards. I've called you on this before.
This is simply rubbish. You have played the game of saying if you don't accept the texts my guy is in then I won't accept any guy in any text. At the same time you have the corollary that you'll accept any guy already acceptable in any text, if others accept yours. The plea to "I don't have a 'guy'" is as credible as HJers not having a guy.

Those texts considered "historical" have been shown to be related to the body of knowledge built up about the past. That body of knowledge was originally textually based, but it has undergone a vast revision through the use of epigraphy, coins, statuary, archaeological remains of all sorts, plus a whole flotilla of other data from the time. Once the body of knowledge is built up, a text's historicity involves how much of it reflects that knowledge. If there is nor enough to show a tangible connection with that knowledge one cannot establish the historical value of the text.

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No, I have attempting, successfully in your case, to show that the same quantum of evidence that relates to typical historical figures from antiquity relates to Jesus. So far, you haven't rebutted the evidence I've adduced supporting that claim.
What you are saying is literary evidence is all you will accept and it apparently doesn't matter which literature.

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The list wasn't all-inclusive. Put Alexander on it. Now, why exactly is it silly?
You have been caught out attempting to play ostrich with evidence. Remember the coins as one example. You simply did a Larsguy47 on that evidence. You didn't even get your feet wet on all the other evidence available. You were playing at waiting for the mountain to come to you.

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None, since I've never felt the urget to analyze Ebion's historicity.
It's a required effort if you want to deal with historical evidence in the field of establishing historicity for your guy.

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I've been over this before with you, so you seem to be perseverating.
You seem to be prevaricating. The topic has been raised, but not gone over meaningfully.

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Texts are texts, and the meaning of historicity is be texual referenced. However there are genre of texts, as we all know, and some don't purport to involved historical personages. However, this won't help you, since the gospels and Acts are clearly within the real of historigraphical writings, particular biography. Now,whether various events described in historigraphical texts are accurate is another matter.
I was hoping that you would try to scratch the surface of the problem rather than float above it.

The content of texts has no relation to the real world until they can be attached to it. The writer being in the real world will naturally use material from the real world to fill the text, but we have no way going from solely the text to know if it does have a meaningful relation to the real world. You need to supply a means of constructing that relation with the real world. As you eschew everything but the text, it seems you abandon all hope of doing so.

How do you separate the merely plausible figure from the person connected to the past? Plausibility is not a sufficient condition for historicity, so how do you get beyond plausibility?

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Really this isn't very complex, except for you apparently.
Like a snake with its tail in its mouth going around in circles.

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Yep, it means something. The issue is the standard for making that determination, which I notice is constantly changed by those, like you, who want to privilege certain "historical" texts, for reasons I cannot fathom.
What you cannot fathom is that there is more than just the text. You cannot fathom that you need to use more than just the text to establish historicity.

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I see know difference between the gospels and any biography of the time, except that the gospel writers seem to have more narrative talent.
You're supposed to use a blushing smilie here.

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I see no difference between Acts and any history in antiquity, except again Luke has certain writing talents that Herodotus lacks.

But here's your chance. Spell of the difference you discern.
Funny, I've been trying to get you past the notion of a text qua text is sufficient for historicity. Now you want me to spell what you are supposed to do out for you.

The task is simple: how do you connect your stuff to what we already know about the relevant past?


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Old 04-23-2007, 09:15 PM   #52
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I would consult whether there is any references to these works from patristic writers and see what they thought about it, being closer in time. I would use textual analysis to see if we can determine the source of these works. In short, I wouldn't do anything different than I would do in determining the historigraphical nature of the gospels or Thucydides.
This is not correct. Thucydides' material is related not just to other texts but to the real world through the comparison of content with evidence of events.

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Why what would you do? Make unexamined categories and put them in it?
I cannot help it if you don't examine the categories. Do you read a text by looking at the individual letters in the text or have you got past that stage to working with words?

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How is analysing texts a metaidea? You seem to disagree with the type of analysis, but are unable to articulate your disagreement. Which is not a good sign.
Twiddling texts is not necessarily related to anything in the real world. You need to have your analysis tied with a rope, otherwise it'll float away.

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Texts are historical evidence. Or can be. What's your problem with that?
"Or can be" tells the tale. How do you discern historical evidence? How do you relate a text to the period they purport to deal with? How do you discern the relation of the content to the period they were written in?

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As to ignoring other evidence, this is another strawman argument.
I can only go by what you say or refuse to say. You incessantly go on about texts and do not acknowledge anything else. If it is a straw man it's one of your own construction.

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I have difficulty seeing what evidence you will accept which will be able to distinguish Ramses II from the Prince of Egypt.
I think this gets at the heart of your naivte in these matters.
This is a typical response of yours when unable to say anything meaningful. Avoid giving content related comments as it will show up your situation and change tack. Sure sign of your contentlessness.

I made the distinction as simple as possible in the comment you cited from me -- reductionist, but the aim was for clarity in face of your pussyfooting. It was a direct statement which was hoping for content from you, a statement disappointed by your look nothing up my sleeve response.

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What do you mean by Ramses II and how do you know what you know about Ramses II?
In an effort to get you to deal with the simple distinct I made in the comment you cited, by Ramses II I mean the guy whose corpse they've got preserved in the Cairo Museum along with some of his relatives, corpses identified through the epigraphy found with the bodies. I mean the guy who is talked about in epigraphy from his temple and from monuments around Egypt. I mean the guy who made a treaty with the Hittites, copies of which were found in Thebes and Hattusa, in Egyptian and Hittite.

We write the history of the times of Ramses II based on the evidence from the period. Shuffling literary texts is only one facet of doing history.

When you can get to it, how do you distinguish between the Marcion and Ebion? (Ebion is the person Tertullian and various other fathers knew as the founder of the Ebionite movement.)


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Old 04-23-2007, 10:53 PM   #53
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Pagan and Christian Historiography
in the Fourth Century A.D.
--- ARNALDO MOMIGLIANO (1959/60)
yeah, but this was written in 1959, not the 4th century. Does it cite any damning evidence from the 4th century?
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Old 04-23-2007, 11:11 PM   #54
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yeah, but this was written in 1959, not the 4th century. Does it cite any damning evidence from the 4th century?
What do you make of Migliano's use of the term miracle,
used twice for emphasis, in the beginning of this work. It would
appear that the foremost ancient historian of the 20th century
wished his students to associate the miraculous, with the times
of Constantine the Great. How absurdly dry is his wit?
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Old 04-23-2007, 11:21 PM   #55
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What do you make of Migliano's use of the term miracle,
used twice for emphasis, in the beginning of this work.
For fuck's sake, mountainman, we've been through this. In context the miracle is in the eyes of the christians of the time. That is what Momigliano is saying. Note: to the christians of the era, ie there were christians at the time when Constantine defeated Maxentius a few kilometres north of the Milvian Bridge.

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It would appear that the foremost ancient historian of the 20th century wished his students to associate the miraculous, with the times of Constantine the Great. How absurdly dry is his wit?
How shallow is your reading? Read the text, not what you desire it to say. That's why you have said ridiculous things about Julian's put down of christianity. You're too busy listening to your inner voice to read what the texts say to you.

Read this again:
On 28 October 312 the Christians suddenly and unexpectedly found themselves victorious. The victory was a miracle though opinions differed as to the nature of the sign vouchsafed to Constantine.
The first sentence puts firmly established christians prior to 28 October 312. Note the "suddenly and unexpectedly"? Momigliano says that to the christians of 312 the victory was sudden and unexpected. These characteristics are those of miracles, hence his use of the term here. If you simply read the text, your difficulties will often go away.


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Old 04-23-2007, 11:32 PM   #56
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What do you make of Migliano's use of the term miracle,
used twice for emphasis, in the beginning of this work. It would
appear that the foremost ancient historian of the 20th century
wished his students to associate the miraculous, with the times
of Constantine the Great. How absurdly dry is his wit?
I don't make anything of it at all.

Do the 4th century sources contain this damning evidence?
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Old 04-24-2007, 09:48 AM   #57
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For fuck's sake, mountainman, we've been through this.
Yes we have spin, in a thread entitled Momigliano's Miracle.

You dont appear to have any new material except
turning up the ascii a few degrees. I find it entirely
miraculous that Momigliano uses the term "miracle"
in his work at all, whatsoever, dont you?

We all know that biblical historians use the term, but
ancient historians normally try and side-step miracles.
Momigliano was arguably the best in his field, Jewish,
fleeing Musolini's Italy for Oxford, one might expect
him never to mention the term, yet he uses it quite
specifically in a central thesis, not once but twice.
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Old 04-24-2007, 10:17 AM   #58
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Yes we have spin, in a thread entitled Momigliano's Miracle.

You dont appear to have any new material except
turning up the ascii a few degrees. I find it entirely
miraculous that Momigliano uses the term "miracle"
in his work at all, whatsoever, dont you?
And you appear to be none the wiser for the thread. You still don't seem to understand the words that Momigliano said. It is plain as the nose on your face. You can find that, can't you? Well, it's been spelt out before. Momigliano doesn't give comfort to your grand conspiracy. As I said, he has christians prior to 312. He makes his use of "miracle" clear. The impact of Constantine's victory was so sudden and unexpected -- miraculous in fact. The only reason you don't get it is because you don't want to.

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We all know that biblical historians use the term, but ancient historians normally try and side-step miracles. Momigliano was arguably the best in his field, Jewish, fleeing Musolini's Italy for Oxford, one might expect him never to mention the term, yet he uses it quite
specifically in a central thesis, not once but twice.
There is no relevant content here, mountainman. Come back to earth and read what Momigliano wrote. It is no refuge for your folly.

One day you might enjoy "The victory was a miracle though opinions differed as to the nature of the sign vouchsafed to Constantine."


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Old 04-24-2007, 11:09 AM   #59
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Do the 4th century sources contain this damning evidence?
We do not have the following evidence:

1) Constantine's will (although it apparently existed)
2) Ammianus Marcellinus' obituary on Constantine.
3) Ammianus Marcellinus' history of the prenicene epoch.
4) Emperor Julian's original 3 books "Against the Galilaeans".

We have a period of history in which Constantine ruled
by absolute military power, supported by propaganda.
All the signs of a malevolent despot out to change the
world of his age. You are of course aware of the evidence
of the damning evidence against the new christian regime.

Whatever you mean by "damning evidence" may turn out
to not any one individual thread, but the pattern of the
combination of all threads.
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Old 04-24-2007, 11:19 AM   #60
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And you appear to be none the wiser for the thread. You still don't seem to understand the words that Momigliano said. It is plain as the nose on your face. You can find that, can't you? Well, it's been spelt out before. Momigliano doesn't give comfort to your grand conspiracy.

And you appear to be none the wiser that I have outlined
my objections to you (and Carrier) simplistically waving around
a conspiracy flag, in the thread entitled:

Constantine's Bible: "conspiracy theories" vs "absolute political power"
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