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Old 08-25-2005, 02:03 AM   #181
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Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
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Oh, and d) This is only pure untinged conjecture on your part
[snip]
The text is quite specific.
Hey spin, you underestimate the power of conjecture! The text of Genesis being quite specific about what happened also didn't hinder bnfiii in the slightest of conjecturing the exact opposite of what the text say into it!
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Old 08-25-2005, 02:39 AM   #182
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Default Biblical errors

Message to Bfniii: I notice that you conveniently avoided replying to my post #172 even though you replied to other peoples' posts. Why is that?
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Old 08-25-2005, 03:08 AM   #183
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No, Nebuchadnezzar FAILED to perform any of the actions described in Ezekiel 26:7-11, except the first two. That's WHY he failed to take Tyre: he couldn't breach the fortress and get his army inside.

not that he needed to to fulfill the prophecy. all he needed to do was execute his part of the prophecy, which he did; verses 7-11...

...i have asked this before. what do you mean by "failed". what are you expecting him to do other than verses 7-11?
He failed to fulfil verses 7-11 (except the first two actions described).

Why are you imagining that he DID?
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Can YOU quote a historical source for your belief that he DID do these things? This is YOUR fantasy, not mine!

by all accounts, the mainland was destroyed. it was completely abandoned and the monarchy deported. do you deny this?
I am not denying that the first act of Ezekiel 26:7-11 happened. The second act also happened. Then it fails.
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But I will again note your failure to meet my challenge. Perhaps I should make it clearer: PROVIDE a rewrite of Ezekiel 26:7-11, with "you" replaced, and see if it makes sense.

there's no need to rewrite it. it merely mentions nebuchadnezzar's part, the actions he will execute which he did to the mainland. "you" does not refer to any one part of the land, but to the nation.
"Nations" don't have walls, gates and towers: the city of Tyre did. Tyre's walls, gates and towers, which Nebby beseiged, were not ON the mainland. They were on the island fortress, and he failed to penetrate them.
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But that's the way it IS! If I commit a crime and don't get caught by the police: nothing happens in this life!

you've never experienced any pain, suffering or injustice? wow. that's amazing.
As far as I can recall, I have never experienced any pain, suffering or injustice as a consequence of my sins (unless you count hangovers from drinking too much).
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you are ALSO ignoring other Biblical verses (already given) which specifically describe the punishment of people for the crimes of their forebears as a general principle (actively inflicting punishment on children for a specific number of generations).

i haven't ignored them. i have said that God didn't promise a life free from injustice.
...That he will actively inflict. But you don't seem to have a problem with that.
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(and if the doctor was omnipotent, he'd make it painless),

not necessarily. have you ever heard of a shock collar for a dog?
Fascinating. You think doctors deliberately make their treatments painful, and would consider fitting their patients with shock collars if the treatment would otherwise be painless?
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70,000 people desired to be killed by God? David desired this also?

ugh. God does not desire to kill people. He wants everyone to go to heaven. but sometimes people don't choose that. also, the sins of people affect other people. there is pain and suffering and death in this life.
And, according to your religion, God is largely responsible for it. But that's OK.
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"Justice" is a human word in the English language. God did not invent it. It has a specific meaning that humans have ascribed to it:

and where did the idea behind the word come from?
Evolution. Even monkeys have a sense of "fair play".
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But I note that you are again suggesting "special rules" for God.

i have not suggested such. i have said that our limited existence confuses some people about what is written in the bible.
You have presented no evidence for this "confusion". It seems quite clear to ME. You seem to be admitting that YOU are confused.
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I doubt that you will find any more, the SAB is fairly comprehensive.

since you didn't answer the question, i take it you want to drop the point.
Translation: YOU can't find any more either.
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According to the Bible, at least some of the suffering and injustice was inflicted by God.

i agree that he allows suffering.
Well, I actually used the word "inflicted". But, yes, the "bfniii principle" implies that you don't have a problem with that, so why bring it up again?
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No, I'm merely pointing out that God is actively evil, deliberately punishing people for the actions of others,

you are still acting like this is unjustified.
Yes, it is. You're still dithering on this, aren't you? Why do you have a problem with simply admitting what you so obviously believe: that YOU DON'T CARE about whether God's actions are "just" or not?
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Yes, we have covered God's amorality already. But you're still skipping the part where Smith's lawyer had to claim that Smith LIED about his motive: just as apologists require the Bible to lie about God's.

there is no such lie. it's plain and simple. there is suffering and injustice in this life. God allows it. God never promised it would be different.
This was in response to your earlier attempts to pretend that God was "just", and only punished the children of wrongdoers if THEY did something to deserve it: which isn't what the Bible says. But you now seem to have (almost) fully embraced the "bfniii principle": you no longer care.
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You are getting your responses mixed up again. I'm NOT referring to the "no" list, but to your attempts to justify God's actions in apparently punishing people for the actions of others by claiming that the victims themselves deserved it.

one justification i have posited is that if we are all guilty of something, what difference does it make why, where or how we suffer the consequences of our actions? well, it doesn't. it's sophistry to say "i wasn't guilty of THAT crime" conveniently leaving out the "but i'm guilty of these other crimes".
It would, however, imply that the Bible is lying about WHICH crimes you are being punished for.
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I have not "backpeddled", my claim has not changed, and you have not refuted it.

if you can't answer the charge, then i'm willing to let you off the hook.
I have no idea what you are talking about. My claim did not change. Unless this is your way of saying that YOU want to be let off the hook?
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And I have already pointed out that you are wrong, Leviticus does NOT describe people who VOLUNTEERED,

i disagree.
Thereby demonstrating your ignorance of the Bible (again), even though you have been given the quotes.

Exodus 22:29 "Thou shalt not delay to offer the first of thy ripe fruits, and of thy liquors: the firstborn of thy sons shalt thou give unto me" - please explain how ripe fruits and liquors can VOLUNTEER.

Leviticus 27:28-29 "Notwithstanding no devoted thing, that a man shall devote unto the LORD of all that he hath, both of man and beast, and of the field of his possession, shall be sold or redeemed: every devoted thing is most holy unto the LORD. None devoted, which shall be devoted of men, shall be redeemed; but shall surely be put to death" - note that "a man" is devoting stuff that HE HAS from his men, beasts, and fields. Please explain why a volunteer needs to be "devoted" by another man, how a beast volunteers, and how crops volunteer.
Quote:
they were "devoted to God" BY OTHERS, and it says that ALL humans "devoted to God" (which would include the firstborn) MUST be put to death. You are also continuing to ignore the OTHER evidence that this happened.

you response here does not explicitly mean that children were sacrificed.
Are you now arguing that the children were allowed to grow to adulthood before being sacrificed? Do you have evidence of this, and does it make any difference anyhow?

On the E/C stuff, and the need to discuss this in the appropriate forum:
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Yes, you do.

then why did YOU bring it up?
Well, as I recall, YOU did (indirectly), by claiming that fundies "study history and archaeology" (which contradict Genesis).
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I cannot give you the equivalent of many years of education in a few paragraphs.

i wasn't asking for that. i was asking what specifically you were alluding to. now don't disappoint us. you brought it up, so follow through with your education of me.
Are you actually unaware of the existence of radiometric dating, the fossil record, tree rings, polar ice layers, varves, records from civilizations unaffected by the Flood, the light from distant stars, the lack of a global sediment line, the lack of water damage of "pre-Flood" archaeological sites, and so forth?
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It is the ONLY STATED REASON. That is simply a statement of fact, and you'd know this if you were familiar with Genesis. No other reason is STATED.

as i pointed out, you are incorrect. you fail to reply to the missing words which lead to your assumption.
As I pointed out, YOU are incorrect. My statement was factually correct: therefore yours was not.

You do seem to have some sort of fundamental reading-comprehension problem.
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How about "crackpots claim that Ezekiel was a true prophet"? You have the relevant Biblical quotes.

still no quote from you......
You want a quote from a person making such a claim?

There's a guy called "bfniii" around here who has said something similar.
Quote:
No, YOU brought up the subject of the Dead Sea Scrolls, which are entirely IRRELEVANT to this discussion.

darn. and i went to all that trouble to show how they are relevant.
...Except that they're not, of course. Again, you seem to have some sort of problem here.
Quote:
I mentioned it as an example of something accepted by mainstream scholars that fundamentalists nevertheless reject. You tried to argue that it was NOT generally accepted, and I proved you wrong with the Encyclopaedia Britannica article...

which i rebutted.

...which presented this as the accepted view.

"accepted" does not mean "correct".
Again, you seem to have a comprehension problem here. You did not "rebut" my claim. Merely posting comments which fail to contradict a claim (and fail to back this up with facts which actually contradict the claim being made) is not a "rebuttal".

The claim stands. A Maccabean Daniel is the accepted mainstream view: the scholarly consensus.

I will let spin address any further specifics about Daniel.
Quote:
Well, gosh. I wonder why the overwhelming majority of Jews, including many who study their holy writings intensively, and have been doing so for two thousand years, are more likely to be correct in THEIR interpretation of THEIR holy books than the followers of another religion, whose first followers were supposedly fishermen and other non-scholars, and which has since drawn almost all of its followers from people who were never Jews in the first place, and which has failed to make any significant inroads into Judaism for two thousand years?

there are jews today who have the same heredity that convert to christianity.
Yes, and some that are Muslims, Scientologists... and rather a lot of atheists too.

Evasion noted (again).
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Gosh, so that IS your position! They weren't supernatural at all, and Moses was faking too!

do you have a natural explanation for the last miracle?
Other than "it's just a story", you mean? No, but weren't we discussing the ones which the Egyptian priests allegedly duplicated?
Quote:
Again, it seems that YOU need to educate yourself on what scholars have to say regarding the polytheistic history of Judaism: and you won't find THAT in the Bible itself.

again, not all hebrews were polytheistic.
Again, they were. Remember, we're not talking about what the BIBLE claims.
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Old 08-25-2005, 04:25 AM   #184
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
How on earth would this make sense if A actually meant: "Please do it"?

It's not a question of allowing him to do so. It's a question how your story is supposed to make sense!!!!

I'm done with you. You just repeat your ridiculous story, which is the exact opposite of what the text says, without providing support for it in any way.
This revelation has transformed my understanding of the Ten Commandments...
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Old 08-25-2005, 04:37 AM   #185
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
This revelation has transformed my understanding of the Ten Commandments...
Edit: OK, got it!

Well, something I really wonder: If one has the liberty to reinterpret Genesis the way bnfiii does, what exactly stops one to reinterpret it to let it say "god created through evolution, all life shares a common ancestor". IMHO, one needs no more force fitting for this interpretation than for bnfiii's.
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Old 08-25-2005, 07:39 AM   #186
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Why not do that for the entire Bible?

Some "liberal" Christians, including the Bishop of Durham, don't believe that Jesus literally rose from the dead: this was "figurative". Bfniii, do you agree with this? If not: why not?
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Old 08-25-2005, 07:47 AM   #187
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...By the way, bfniii:

I intended my post #178 to be a "where we're at" summary. I note that you have not responded to it, despite posting twice on this thread since then. Do you consider it an accurate summary? If not: why not?
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Old 08-25-2005, 09:08 AM   #188
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I've been searching, and I can find no mention of Tyre's "daughter villages" having walls (except for fundie sites, which assume they did because that's how they want to interpret Ezekiel 26:7-11). Presumably the individual houses had walls...

Nor can I find any mention of the daughter villages being besieged (no need for this if there were no walls).

The walls of Tyre proper (the island fortress) were magnificent: 150 feet tall! These were, quite obviously, the walls being referred to: the only walls worth mentioning, the only walls which would pose an obstacle to Nebuchadnezzar's army. The walls he struggled to breach for 13 years: the walls which actually defeated him: the walls responsible for the failure described by Ezekiel himself (when he again uttered a false prophecy, that Nebuchadnezzar would conquer Egypt instead).

If God had actually meant "the walls of a hut in the villages that one of Neb's chariots would accidentally run into and flatten" or whatever: then God is a trickster. And an outright liar too, as the later failures demonstrate (no permanent destruction of Tyre, no conquest of Egypt): if he can simply lie about those, then why not simply lie about Tyre's walls too?
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Old 08-25-2005, 09:27 AM   #189
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
We (he) do this because it's the obvious way to do it:
no it's not. it's an obvious way NOT to do it. judging something supposedly infinite against something finite borders on ridiculous.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
Use words as they are defined in our language. So you essentially agree that god isn't "human-just" ("God is unjust but you are using human standards"), one has to use a different standard: He is "god-just". Problem is, this "god-just" disagrees with "human just" again and again. That's why we don't call god "just".
no i have not agreed to such. i am saying that we have an unclear notion of morality apart from a super-natural standard. human justice is relative and no two people would be able to agree completely. therefore, to judge something supernatural, we need to consider a supernatural morality. concordantly, to judge biblical accounts of the actions of an omnipotent God on such a flawed system is flawed in itself. there may be a "human just" as you put it, but it would be convoluted and opaque at best.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
It gets worse: If he uses injustice for good things, it would actually not be injustice, but justice, no?
i think short term injustice can be used for long term good. so there is both, there is a distinction. but christianity purports that these peaks and valleys are not central to a christian. accepting Christ is. therefore, injustice and justice are just trappings of this life.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
See, "god-just" apparently often is indistinguishable from "human-unjust". That's why we don't call god "just":
i agree that if we are shortsighted, then this perception is possible.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
"god-just" is just as meaningless as "kjsdgfsdgf".
there are times when God's will does appear to be confusing.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
Whatever god does, you call it "just", the word looses every meaning.
not at all. i have agreed that there is injustice in this life. there is no loss of meaning.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
I wonder why this "university professor" did even bother with this, since the story never happened.
i think because he is scientifically exploring the possibility. if it did not happen, then let's let science prove it. there's nothing to lose.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
Did he also write a book on how Gandalf's magic can be explained by extraordinary timing with respect to natural causes?
no but i think he's working on a book comparing the bene gessirit "voice" to wonder woman's lasso.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
The Smithsonian certainly had in mind that this is impossible because the flood simply did not happen.
funny, i didn't see that part in there.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
But you apparently take this to mean that even if the flood happened, it would not be possible to verify this today in the real world, one just has to take the bible's word for it. Please correct me if I misunderstood you.
not at all. i think what they were saying is that so far, history is silent on the issue (as with many other issues) but that might not always be the case.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
Assumed I got you right, why do you think so, although archeologists have no problem at all with identifying minor floods of the past? Don't you think a major flood leaves more evidence than a minor one, not less?
i have seen archaeological speculation that there is such evidence such as sea animal fossils in mountaintops.
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Old 08-25-2005, 10:39 AM   #190
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Sven, after reading your discussion on Genesis, I think I may have gained some insight into bfniii’s God-concept. Let’s see if I follow this correctly;

1. God says to not eat the fruit, while God actually wants them to eat the fruit.

Incorporating the questions raised regarding David, we can add;

2. God incites David to take a census, while God actually did not want David to take a census.
3. God (through Mosaic Law) orders David to kill Hittites, but actually did not want David to kill Uriah the Hittite.
4. God (through Mosaic Law) orders David to kill Jebusites, but rewards David when he does not kill a Jebusite.

Adding Jack the Bodiless’ Tyre problem, we can state further;

5. God predicts that Tyre will be destroyed, which actually means Tyre will not be destroyed.

With the Ten Plagues discussed:

6. God wants his people to leave Egypt, when Pharaoh agrees, God can’t have that, so he harden’s Pharaoh’s heart.

As to the Book of Daniel;

7. God (through inspiration) calls Belshazzar a “king� which means he was not a King.
8. God (though inspiration) calls a King Darius, which means he is not named Darius.

A common polemic used, in this current apologetic, is that what it says, it means the exact opposite.

In fact, although not addressed, we can start to see other areas in which God says one thing, which means the opposite. Like Judges 20-21, or the complete change between Hebrew Bible God and New Testament God.

What we have here is, as I have come to affectionately call it, “Opposite God.�

Now, this becomes important, because we have also seen the statement, “God is just.� That has been a bit difficult to nail down. Primarily because the word “just� means “in accordance with a law, or conforming to what is lawful� and that is all it means. In order to have the statement, “God is Just� have any rational meaning or use, it must mean that God is following some law of some sort.

But what Law? And how can we determine what that law is? By careful inspection of the necessary result of this apologetic, the standard becomes clear. We must do the opposite of what God says!

The only problem I see, is that often theists claim that the “law� God is following is his own nature. Eventually, of course, this will boil down to “might makes right� and renders the word “just� useless as there is no law, only whim. But what makes this apologetic interesting is that by combining “God is Just� with “’Just’ meaning following his nature� and “we must do the opposite of what God wants� we come to the conclusion that in order for God to be Just, He must be doing the exact opposite of what he wants to do!

Apparently God wanted to save the earth at the time of Noah, and, being Just, had to do the exact opposite. To any Christian buying this “opposite� apologetic-is it scary to think that the only reason you live is because God wants you dead, but his Justice demand he do the exact opposite?

Seriously, there are plenty of anecdotes of inerrantists becoming convinced through apologetical arguments, that the Bible has errors. Is anyone aware of a singe person that believed the Bible had errors, argued the Bible has errors, and in discussing it with an inerrantist, became convinced of inerrancy?

Or is it always a one-way street?
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