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Old 01-06-2008, 06:19 AM   #131
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If Mark was writing "midrashic fiction", based on Paul's MJ and the OT (which I believe is the standard mythicist line), why didn't anyone else recognise it? Why didn't critics like Celsus recognise it? Or Justin's "Trypho" character? I would have thought that Jewish scholars should have recognised the genre for what it was. Is there any evidence of anyone doing that? If not, it seems to me to provide support that Mark had a historical person in mind.

In your view, if Mark wasn't writing about a historical person, did Mark expect his intended audience to understand that? Should we have expected early Christians and/or Jewish scholars of Mark's time to have understood that?
I've never claimed anything about "midrash", that's a Doherty claim. I don't view the Gospels as midrash, I view them as a completely new type of writing that combined Jewish and Greek/Roman styles of writing.

I don't see any reason that any non-Jew would recognize anything about the writing as being fiction other than the supernatural stuff. Without extensive comparative analysis between a Gospel and the Hebrew scriptures this conclusion can't be arrived at.

For someone, like Celsus, who was probably only giving casual attention to this issue, and may have only heard of these stories through second hand accounts, there was no way for him to figure that out. Even if he read a Gospel, most likely Matthew, its doubtful he would have studied it in depth or studied a large volume of Jewish literature and background. You can't come to any conclusion about the Gospels by reading one by itself, this can only be done by reading all of the Gospels, a good volume of Jewish apocalyptic literature, and a large volume of Hebrew scriptures, which also must be the right scritpures. It has taken over a thousand years of analysis to arrive at some of this information, and even at that, having computers really helps today to be able to sort all of this out an identify scriptural references. This type of analysis was impossible back then, and a critic like Celsus would never have been able to come up with such a critique.

Additionally, the allegorical nature of the story is really only present in the Gospel of Mark, none of the others, so unless you read Mark there again would have been no way to figure it out, and by all of the evidence it appears that Mark was one of the least known and least widely read of the Gospels. The most popular seems to have been Matthew, which completely bastardizes the whole thing and isn't written anything like Mark.

We don't know what Jewish scholars thought about it because we have no commentary from them during this early time period. Its doubtful they would have necessarily figured it out either though, since they themselves believed in the truth of their own stories anyway. There were a few, like Phio, who had a different level of understanding of the scriptures, maybe if Philo had been alive and read some of the material he would have figured it out, but that's impossible to speculate on.

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If Mark was writing for a Roman audience about a fictional person, should we assume then that, as the Romans would have been unaware of the "midrashic fiction" genre, he was trying to fool them somehow? Would the Romans of Mark's time also never have suspected that Mark was writing fiction?
I have no idea what audience it was written for. The extensive use of Jewish scripture seems to indicate it was written for a Jewish audience, but I can have no way of knowing. Knowing what was going through the head of the author is almost impossible speculation.

Maybe he thought that people would simply take it as a fictional story, like a parable. Maybe he thought of it as esoteric mystery writing, with secret hidden codes. Maybe he was trying to fool people. Maybe he thought that Jesus was real and that these things happened, but since he had no details or any information about him he simply used the scriptures to provide his details. I don't really know and can only speculate about the writers intentions.

Look at things even in our own time. Look at the War of the Worlds broadcast. What was the intention of Orson Wells in doing the broadcast? What was the intention of G.A. Wells in writing the story? Did either of them intend that the story be taken literally and that people die because of it? In reality, the story was taken literally and people died because of it. Intent has nothing to do with reception, and interpretation is in the eye of the beholder, as any art or literature professor will tell you. Once that work leaves your hands, you have no control over it, no control over its reception, and no control over its effects. American history is replete with the effects of writing on perception.

Where was the gunfight between the Earps and the Clantons? OK Corral?

Nope, it was not at the OK Corral, a story titled "Gunfight and the OK Corral" was later written because the title sounded catchy, and movies then followed suit. Today almost everyone thinks the fight really took place at the OK Corral, but it was really nowhere near there, although there is an OK Corral in Tombstone Arizona. What was the intention of the author? did the author intend to rewrite history? Why do so many people believe that the fight took place at the OK Corral? Why don't they suspect otherwise, etc.?

What about Paul Revere's ride to inform the people of the Read Cots coming? It never happened, the popular account si based on a poem, etc.
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Old 01-06-2008, 06:25 AM   #132
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Its pretty obvious that Celsus was working from a Gospel either directly or indirectly. Likewise, its also pretty clear that by this time there was widespread belief in the Gospel material as historical accounts (i.e. Jesus was killed by Pilate, etc.)
Didn't you say previously that there were also wide spread Gnostic teachings that Jesus didn't exist?

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There is no such thing as an account of someone not existing.
Umm ... to quote you:

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the so-called Gnostics, didn't even believe in a human Jesus anyway, so how can you argue that such a Jesus did not exist when the believers themselves hold a view of the deity which doesn't even depend on him having "existed" in any meaningful way in the fist place?
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There were no stories circulating about Jesus not existing, because there is never such a story.
Tell that to Earl.

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Today we can only establish that by doing extensive interviews and various checks of records, none of which Celsus would have been able to do even if he were so inclined.

I can't figure any way that Celsus would have even come to that line to reasoning. You have a story about a guy that was crucified by Pilate, who really did execute lots of Jews as we know, so its not at all improbable, and not only is this account written down, but by the time Celsus comes along it is also widely circulated and repeated as fact by thousands of people.
Where would the idea that this guy never have existed come from?
According to Earl, from Paul and from Hebrews where Jesus' non earthly existence it is plainly stated. And, if I understand you correctly, from a reading of Mark, which given its wholly allegorical character, would have clued Celsus that the whole Jesus story was not to be taken as historical.

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As for the Gnostics, all of whose views of Jesus were also based on Gospel accounts, trying to prove that a phantom never existed, in some cases a phantom that was not believed to have been born or to have truly died, doesn't seem reasonable. Now you are talking ghost busters type activity. We can't even prove to people today that ghosts aren't real, how could they do ti back then?
Could you please provide some documentation not only that all Gnostics based their views on, let alone solely on, canonical Gospel accounts and that they all viewed their saviour figure Jesus as a phantom, as someone who had no actual physical presence during the time they say he was manifesting himself to disciples like Thomas, etc.

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Old 01-06-2008, 06:31 AM   #133
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For someone, like Celsus, who was probably only giving casual attention to this issue, and may have only heard of these stories through second hand accounts, there was no way for him to figure that out.
Have you actually read Celsus? Yes or no (and, please, none of "no one can read Celsus since we don't have his work dodge).

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Even if he read a Gospel, most likely Matthew, its doubtful he would have studied it in depth or studied a large volume of Jewish literature and background.
What is the basis for your determination of what is land is not likely here? What exactly is the nature and extent of your acquaintance with Celsus?

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Old 01-06-2008, 12:33 PM   #134
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Enough of the petty nonsense JG. Would you like to propose how a Roman in the 2nd century could have proven that Jesus didn't exist or could have made a successful argument against his existence?

BTW, its been about a year since I read Contra Celsus.
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Old 01-06-2008, 12:51 PM   #135
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Enough of the petty nonsense JG.
It's only nonsense if your claims about what Mark recognizably is, are nonsense.

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Would you like to propose how a Roman in the 2nd century could have proven that Jesus didn't exist or could have made a successful argument against his existence?
He could have pointed to "Christian texts" which said that Jesus had no earthly existence, or noted that the texts upon which Christians based their claim that Jesus lived were fictions/allegories that were built up out of Hebrew scriptures, or that the texts upon which Christians base their claims for Jesus' existence were all interpolated. In other words, in the same way that many here, who are separated from the first century by an even wider expanse of time than Celsus is, "prove" that Jesus didn't exist.

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BTW, its been about a year since I read Contra Celsus.
I suggest that you read this again.

And when did you (last) read the Gnostic texts that you've been making global claims about?


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Old 05-14-2008, 07:54 AM   #136
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The Romans tried to stamp out Xianity. The easiest way to stamp out the new religion would be to prove Christ didn't exist. That would have been easy enough back then, if Christ didn't exist, since it could have been demonstrated they never crucified anyone like Jesus Christ. Why didn't they?

mod note: split from this thread
The basic problem was that Christianity then as now was not a monolithic belief. In fact the concept of a "Christ" to lead the Jews out from under Roman rule was at least 100 years old by the time the Jesus of the Bible supposedly walked the earth. If you go and actually read the context of famous second quote in Josephus you discover that he is talking about another man called Jesus who was also called Christ NOT as the apologetics claim the Jesus of the Bible (Jesus son of Joshua):

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Possessed of such a character, Ananus thought that he had a favourable opportunity because Festus was dead and Albinus was still on the way. And so he convened the judges of the Sanhedrin and brought them a man called James, the brother of Jesus who was called the Christ, and certain others. He accused them of having transgressed the law and delivered them up to be stoned. Those of the inhabitants of the city who were considered the most fair minded and who were strict in observance of the law were offended at this. They therefore secretly sent to King Agrippa urging him, for Ananus had not even been correct in his first step, to order him to desist from further actions. Certain of them even went to meet Albinus, who was on his way from Alexandria, and informed him that Ananus had no authority to convene the Sanhedrin without his consent. Convinced by these words, Albinus angrily wrote to Ananus threatening to take vengence upon him. King Agrippa, because of Ananus' action, deposed him from the high priesthood which he had held for three months and replaced him with Jesus the son of Damnaeus.
In context is is clear that the "James, the brother of Jesus who was called the Christ" Josephus is referring to is Jesus the son of Damnaeus who was made High Priest which is clearly NOT the Jesus Christ of the Bible.

Also it is important to remember the Jesus we know was settled on in the 4th century when the Canon of the NT was settled on. We now now that where as many as 50 (!) Gospels floating around the Roman Empire by the middle of the 2nd century (when Church fathers start quoting from the four we are familiar with) many of which had Jesus being born and dying (by different means) at different times. Given all this the Roman in all likelihood saw the Christian movement as yet another mystery cult.
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Old 05-17-2008, 12:32 PM   #137
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The Romans tried to stamp out Xianity. The easiest way to stamp out the new religion would be to prove Christ didn't exist. That would have been easy enough back then, if Christ didn't exist, since it could have been demonstrated they never crucified anyone like Jesus Christ. Why didn't they?

mod note: split from this thread

The fact is that Christ did exist and still does exist but the new Christian religion was not the religion that Jesus had in mind.

There was Jesus the Christ as described in Luke and there was Jesus the Christ as described in Matthew. These two are not the same which then is why James is said to be Jesus' brother who did not experinece resurrection in Matthew while Jesus the Christ in Luke did.

Christianity (Christian-ity) is a condition of being reached at the end of religion after the transformation of the mind soul and body and thus not an -ism that is supposed to bring good things about after we die (sic), . . . which cannot be true if following Luke's way we can enjoy heaven on earth, and all we have to do is as much as take Jesus down from the cross and place ourselves upon it (instead of burning with desire at the foot of the cross).

What the Romans were trying to do is stamp out the Christianity of James so that the Christianity of Luke could prosper among them . . . which is the very reason why the NT was written to start with because the Jews where doing the same thing! To wit: they entered the promised land before their own time (by parting the water instead walking on top of the water) and therefore spend 40 years instead of 40 days in the desert and still die nonetheless . . . much like James' Christians since for them good things can only come about after they die.

Note that the crucifixion can only be real if it is a metaphor since in the end only beauty and truth are real with beauty (we call her Mary) being the continuity of truth (we call him Christ).

By edit I should add that it is wrong for a Christians to return to his religion if it is meant to be the end of religon. Notice that Jesus never went beyond the precinct and from there provoked the animosity that got him crucified . . . which is something that only his own religion can do.
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Old 05-17-2008, 07:58 PM   #138
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But the opposition to Christianity was based on philosophical objections, not naturalistic in any case.
Celsus, and presumably others Romans as well, thought it quite sufficient to depict him as a criminal and shit-disturber who was crucified along with other scum.

By Roman lights, it was absurd to portray such a man as a god. No proper god would subject himself to such an indignity. And no right-thinking person could possibly worship such a lowlife!

Malachi151 is correct in saying that the Romans had neither the means nor the motivation to challenge Jesus' historicity, any more than they would have challenged the existence of innumerable garden gods, hearth gods. spring gods, pond gods, mountain gods, city gods, provincial gods - or maxi-gods like Jupiter and Venus.

Locals in the Roman Empire were free to openly worship the gods of their choice. Christians were considered to be atheists - subversives who refused to participate in officially ordained sacrifices and ceremonies, thus jeopardizing the well-being of the entire populace.

They were the third century equivalent of tax evaders, or, in wartime, draft dodgers.

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Old 05-17-2008, 09:21 PM   #139
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[

They were the third century equivalent of tax evaders, or, in wartime, draft dodgers.

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Perverts is more like it!
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