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01-27-2010, 10:03 AM | #81 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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In box 2, we have the leper address Jesus as "Lord" in both Matthew and Luke, while in Mark the leper gets right to "If you are willing" -- In box 4, we have Luke ending with the gerund, "saying", as in Matthew, while in Mark we have the active instead, "and said to him". These do appear to be two minor agreements in the triple tradition showing both Matthew and Luke in joint disagreement with Mark. I confess to being curious, please, if Earl Doherty would view these two as coincidence or agreements of some significance? Thanks, Chaucer |
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01-27-2010, 11:01 AM | #82 | |||
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01-27-2010, 11:19 AM | #83 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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01-27-2010, 11:42 AM | #84 | ||
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http://homepage.virgin.net/ron.price/syno_Plog.html Chaucer |
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01-27-2010, 12:06 PM | #85 | ||
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No Greek though..... |
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01-27-2010, 01:16 PM | #86 | ||
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Hope this is useful: Lk: 3:7-9; 16b-17; 4:1-13; 15:4-5; 7; 7:31-35; 6:12; 6:17; 20-23; 27-33; 35-49; 7:1-3; 6-10; 18-19; 22-28; 11:14-15; 17-26; 12:10; 11:33-35; 12:2-3; 19:12-13; 15-24; 26; 13:18-21; 10:2-16; 10:21-24; 11:16; 29-32; 12:54-56; 58-59; 14:26-27; 17:33; 12:4-9; 22-31; 17:1-4; 14:34-35; 9:57-60; 16:18; 12:33-34; 16:13; 13:24; 26-30; 13:34-35; 14:11; 17:6; 11:2-4; 9-11; 13; 14:16b-19; 21; 23-24; 11:39b-44; 11:46-52; 12:11-12; 51; 53; 17:23-24; 17:26-27; 30; 34-35; 37; 16:16-17; 12:39-40; 42-46; 22:28-30. Chaucer |
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01-27-2010, 07:11 PM | #87 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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That was an underwhelming response to the effort I put into putting this data together to show the complex relationship between the sources. How do you all envisage the Lucan writer working with his two sources to get the results you see? Why do neither Matthew nor Luke have the Marcan sections in dark red? I personally don't think any of the theories is capable of dealing with the indications in this passage.
But the only way one can deal with the relationship between the synoptics is to look closely at specific examples of comparisons. spin |
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01-27-2010, 10:30 PM | #88 | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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The author of gLuke appears to have admitted or implied, in the opening first four verses of the gospel, that he was aware of certain information delivered by eyewitnesses and ministers and had "perfect understanding." The recipient of the Lucan writing, Theophilus, had already been instructed by some other source, so it is expected that the author of Luke would not be writing an exact word for word copy of the material that was already available. |
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01-28-2010, 12:21 AM | #89 |
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01-28-2010, 12:30 AM | #90 | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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Matthew doesn't like Jesus speaking sternly to people, but Luke simply rewrites the phrase to say Jesus ordered the guy. This is all quite difficult without the originals, or at least the exact versions that each author had of the other's book... |
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