Johnny Skeptic

I should have stated my position more clearly. What I want to know is who determined what writings became the Old Testament, what criteria they used to choose what writings to include in the Old Testament, and is there any evidence that God actually opposes homosexuality?

spin

Canon is a thorny problem.

The best answer to what criteria is a single one, consent. A number of texts had by the time of the DSS become accepted as necessary texts. Ben Sira had hinted at three basic categories of interest with "the law, the prophets and the others that followed them". And indeed the books of the law were very popular at Qumran along with certain prophets.

Some people want to believe that the canon had already been fixed centuries before the DSS, pointing to the beginnings of the LXX as indicated in the Letter of Aristeas, but this letter is pseudepigraphic and one cannot use it to date when the LXX was translated. Besides all indications we have is that the LXX was translated piecemeal on a needs basis. Josephus even claims he had to translate the relevant history books for his AJ.

There were debates in Mishnaic times over a few books, Esther and Song of Solomon IIRC. That does indicate that most of the books had already received a canonical status.

I don't think canonical Ezra or Nehemiah were compiled until after the time of Josephus and Chronicles may be even later (though almost nobody would agree with me).

But I think the criterion as I stated was generally consent. I don't think there was ever much doubt about most of the texts as they moved towards restricting the group. 2 Esdras 14:44-46 speaks about 94 books and making 24 of them public. The rest were left for the wise.

ED: Just saw that there already was a canon thread so perhaps this could be merged?


spin

Toto

The other thread is more concerned with the Christian canon and the Apocrypha and Protestants.

This thread seems to be asking when Leviticus became part of the canon.

spin

Leviticus would already have been an "in" book, judging by its popularity at Qumran.

Wads4

I think it is very suggestive from David's relationship with Jonathon that there was a homosexual feeling there. In David's lament after Saul and Jonathon were killed in battle with the Philistines he says: "My love for thee was wonderful, passing the love of women";-- and David seems to have had God's approval.

spin

The love for a woman is about procreation and male physical enjoyment. If one went to an Arab society today, you would find that men spend much more time with other men and hardly any with women until they are on the way to marriage. It's not strange for men to hold hands in the street without there being any sexual implication. One could imagine in such a context that one might say "My love for thee was wonderful, passing the love of women" without any homosexual intent. Of course the writer might have intended a homosexual relationship, but you can't tell from what was said. We are merely projecting our isolationist western views of male - male relationships.


spin

Johnny Skeptic

I would still like to know what evidence there is that God opposes homosexuality.

Rick Sumner

Only in Hebrew. If someone wants to give me a term to search, I'll run it through and post what I come up with, but I read very, very little Hebrew, so don't know what I'm looking for otherwise.

Regards,
Rick Sumner