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Old 02-22-2007, 04:57 PM   #71
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Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
As I said, Beyer gives names without citing the texts.
Here you are simply contradicting Richard Carrier in the post right above your post.

Which is even stated directly in the Carrier article on the web.

http://www.infidels.org/library/mode...quirinius.html
The Date of the Nativity in Luke (5th ed., 2006)


So apparently your repeated claim was simply untrue. Or, unlikely, Richard Carrier is making a completely unnecessary concession and falsely wrote that Beyer did site texts.

Now Richard raises what appears at face to be legitimate
questions about Italian and French manuscripts (and them
jumps to his own contusions) so that would be the next point of research. One does wonder if Richard Carrier attempted to
contact David Beyer on the textual matter before his own
jumps ?

Note: some of Carrier's assertions are very strange <edit>.

"Any mss. that Beyer examined were no doubt either from these inferior Latin mss.. or Greek translations from these Latin mss."

"Even allowing such an inconceivable error on the part of Josephus"


The first is circular to the max, a classic hand-waving. And whatever Carrier thinks is inconceivable is up in the air. Josephus is not responsible for future copyists errors, and few claim that his numbers are infallible to the point of inconceivable error.

Richard Carrier's writing, as in the LXX article, is riddled with these types of problems.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Thanks for supporting my point, praxeus. We don't even know what language the individual text was written in, Latin or Greek. If Greek, is it a retranslation from Latin? So much for citing text.spin
Judge responded to this as well. In general, the presumption of a Greek text would be that it is not a reverse translation. Unless there is some substantive evidence offered. To raise the issue without offering any evidence that reverse translation is noted in Josephus manuscripts would be a classic smokescreen.

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Old 02-22-2007, 05:04 PM   #72
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Originally Posted by judge View Post
If the people enrolled or registered during an oath taking then the connection is easy to see.
What would ever have made you think this little piece of fantasy? Why don't you have a look at the other examples of oath taking in Josephus and compare them? None of the language could make you think of a registration for taxation.

Quote:
Originally Posted by judge
Who, do you imagine, would have been retranslating a Latin text back into ancient greek?
If you look at the Hebrew testament in the Codex Alexandrinus one finds numerous passages that have been doctored through returning to the Hebrew, ie the editors have retranslated the Hebrew. An editor of Josephus with knowledge of the Latin vicesimo secundo could translate it back into Greek.


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Old 02-22-2007, 05:13 PM   #73
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Originally Posted by praxeus View Post
Here you are simply contradicting Richard Carrier in the post right above your post.
Interesting, as I said to judge, I haven't read the Carrier article, so why should I care? Because you'd like to whip up some meaningful discussion? Hardly. You are merely hoping like judge to to be able to go away feeling a little less compromised over the conflict in the dating of Jesus's birth.

Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus
Which is even stated directly in the Carrier article on the web.
http://www.infidels.org/library/mode...quirinius.html
The Date of the Nativity in Luke (5th ed., 2006)
Still laboring to eke something out of Carrier. Why waste your efforts with tertiary literature when all you need do is cite information on Beyer's direct use of the original languages.

Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus
So apparently your repeated claim was simply untrue.
As usual, you simply don't have a clue.

Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus
Or, unlikely, Richard Carrier is making a completely unnecessary concession and falsely wrote that Beyer did site texts.

Now Richard raises what appears at fact to be legitimate
questions about Italian and French manuscripts (and them
jumps to his own contusions) so that would be the next point of research.
As you keep parading the Carrier article for want of your own research, what exactly in it has offended your delicate sensibilities?


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Old 02-22-2007, 06:10 PM   #74
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Originally Posted by spin View Post
What would ever have made you think this little piece of fantasy? Why don't you have a look at the other examples of oath taking in Josephus and compare them? None of the language could make you think of a registration for taxation.
So we have aregistration without taxation.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
If you look at the Hebrew testament in the Codex Alexandrinus one finds numerous passages that have been doctored through returning to the Hebrew, ie the editors have retranslated the Hebrew. An editor of Josephus with knowledge of the Latin vicesimo secundo could translate it back into Greek.


spin
You didn't answer my question though.

Here it is again...Who, do you imagine, would have been retranslating a Latin text back into ancient greek?
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Old 02-22-2007, 06:14 PM   #75
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You are merely hoping like judge to to be able to go away feeling a little less compromised over the conflict in the dating of Jesus's birth.
Doesn't really matter to me.
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Old 02-22-2007, 06:18 PM   #76
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Originally Posted by praxeus View Post

Note: some of Carrier's assertions are very strange <edit>.

"Any mss. that Beyer examined were no doubt either from these inferior Latin mss.. or Greek translations from these Latin mss."

"Even allowing such an inconceivable error on the part of Josephus"
Yes I tend to agree. His approach is too dogmatic. He can't seem to countenance any thought he himself may be wrong.

When religious folk do this we should be wary IMHO but really when anybody does it.
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Old 02-22-2007, 06:26 PM   #77
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Originally Posted by praxeus View Post
..
Which is even stated directly in the Carrier article on the web.

http://www.infidels.org/library/mode...quirinius.html
The Date of the Nativity in Luke (5th ed., 2006)


...

Now Richard raises what appears at face to be legitimate questions about Italian and French manuscripts (and them jumps to his own contusions) so that would be the next point of research. One does wonder if Richard Carrier attempted to contact David Beyer on the textual matter before his own jumps ?

Note: some of Carrier's assertions are very strange <edit>.

"Any mss. that Beyer examined were no doubt either from these inferior Latin mss.. or Greek translations from these Latin mss."

"Even allowing such an inconceivable error on the part of Josephus"


. . .
<edited> Ok, I found the reference to Beyer, but not the actual quote above.

Quote:
In Finegan's summary, he never identifies any actual manuscripts, and though Beyer names them he does not identify their relationship to other manuscripts or their known quality or origins. All Finegan (and Beyer) does is "count manuscripts" and argue that older manuscripts are the most reliable. But neither is true, as any palaeographer knows. . . .Beyer examined only manuscripts in the British Museum and the Library of Congress--yet the best manuscripts are in France and Italy--one of which is the oldest, Codex Ambrosianae F 128, inscribed in the 11th century (the oldest manuscript Beyer examined was 12th century); and another is the most reliable: Codex Vaticanus Graecus 984, transcribed in 1354; both confirming a reading of "twentieth," and thus invalidating all his conclusions from the start. Finegan and Beyer seem ignorant of all of these issues. Consequently, we cannot trust them here.
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Old 02-22-2007, 06:31 PM   #78
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I have not followed all of this thread, but I cannot find any reference to Beyer in either errancywiki or the secweb article. Am I missing something?

There is mention of Beyer here. Go down to Was Philip made king in 2 B.C.?

Dont know if that is all there is.
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Old 02-22-2007, 06:33 PM   #79
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Originally Posted by judge View Post
Yes I tend to agree. His approach is too dogmatic. He can't seem to countenance any thought he himself may be wrong.
You're attempting to poison the well by making Richard Carrier out to be a close-minded dogmatist. Having corresponded with Richard I can tell you that your characterization of him is wrong.

Moreover, a cursory glance through his writing will show that he entertains the contrary arguments to his position - something he would not do, if he were as dogmatic as you're desperately trying to make him out to be. In fact, you can't even get through the first page of his essay, without seeing him demonstrate that he is willing to entertain the idea that he might be wrong:

Quote:
Though I think Luke is certainly only referring to Archelaus, the other possibility deserves further discussion. Three months before John is born, Gabriel announces to Mary only that she will conceive (1:31, 36), not that she already has. In fact, Luke never says when Mary conceives. Instead, John appears to have already passed most of his childhood by the time Jesus is born (1:80). Given Jewish law at the time (Mishnah, Abot 5.21), which held that a man becomes subject to religious duties on his thirteenth birthday (which would be John's "day of public appearance to Israel"; we see that day for Jesus in 2:42ff.) and other parallels between Jesus and John (cf. 1:80 and 2:40), it would be reasonable to assume that Luke has in mind that John was nearly twelve when Jesus was born (since "in those days" from vv. 2:1 picks up the "day" of the previous vv. 1:80).[1.1.2] This would easily rescue Luke from charges of chronological error, since he reports that John's birth was foretold in a vision "in the days of Herod king of Judaea" (1.5), and if John was born around then, it would be an error to have Jesus born around the same time if Herod the Great were meant, since he was long dead by the time the census occurs. Of course, this is moot, since this Herod the King may well be Herod Archelaus, not Herod the Great, so if Luke did mean John was born only six months before Jesus, then Luke clearly meant Archelaus, who in that case would have been deposed between the two births, explaining why the census suddenly became an issue exactly then.[1.1.3] Still, we are not told how much time intervened between the annunciation and John's birth (1.22-24), but if we interpret Luke as describing a twelve-year interval, it is notable that he places the birth of John in exactly the same year that Matthew seems to place the birth of Jesus (6 B.C.).
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Old 02-22-2007, 06:39 PM   #80
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
I have not followed all of this thread, but I cannot find any reference to Beyer in either errancywiki or the secweb article. Am I missing something?
And I have only been following two issues, census/enrollment
and the Josephus date for Herod's death.

Errancywiki has stuff from the Richard Carrier section above.
It is in a discussion page, not the article itself.
http://www.errancywiki.com/index.php/Talk:Legends

Dunno about the secular web.

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