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04-02-2008, 12:30 PM | #21 |
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I think everyone takes that for granted. The question is why Paul thought it necessary to assert his humanity if nobody was questioning it. And if Jesus was a historical person, why would anybody have questioned his humanity within just a couple of decades after his death?
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04-02-2008, 02:47 PM | #22 | ||
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1) Jesus has a Father, and a divine Mother. Wow, those friends of mine, the Jews, would never forgive me for this. Too radical, even for me. 2) Jesus has a Father, but no mother. This is the same case as Afrodita (in some versions of the myth). But, but... how can an immortal being's clone (klone?, klwnh?) be mortal? And without death, there is no resurrection. And there goes my Christolgy. No, no, no. 3) Jesus has a Father, and a mortal mother, that is, a woman. Mmm... At least, He can die, then. But, what woman? Living where? Name? Mmm... Better leave this to more imaginative writers... |
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04-02-2008, 08:03 PM | #23 |
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May I suggest having a look at my most recent Supplementary Article on the Jesus Puzzle website: "Born of Woman? Reexamining Galatians 4:4". It looks at this passage from both possibilities: that it is authentic to Paul, and that it is an interpolation. Includes a consideration of Marcion's Galatians (through Tertullian).
http://jesuspuzzle.humanists.net/supp15.htm Earl Doherty |
04-02-2008, 08:45 PM | #24 | ||
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04-02-2008, 10:20 PM | #25 | |||
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Is this a bit like saying that 'flesh and blood' is a metaphor for a mortal being? So that 'Nobody born of a woman can enter the kingdom of God' and 'Flesh and blood cannot enter the kingdom of God' would both have very similar meanings? |
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04-02-2008, 10:35 PM | #26 | |
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Did Jesus know he was telling the truth when he said that among those born of a woman, there was no one greater than John the Baptist? Would Paul have agreed that Jesus was telling the truth about people born of a woman? |
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04-03-2008, 09:54 AM | #27 | |
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04-03-2008, 10:56 AM | #28 | ||||||
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1 Cr 2:2 : For I determined not to know any thing among you, save Jesus Christ, and him crucified. 2 Cr 5:16 Wherefore henceforth know we no man after the flesh: yea, though we have known Christ after the flesh, yet now henceforth know we [him] no more. Quote:
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How is that borne by the texts ? Or is it ? Or is that belief of yours simply a way of saying that Paul's Christ seems unreal to you. Quote:
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04-03-2008, 12:13 PM | #29 |
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Paul's phraseology may relate to the magnitude of Jesus's sacrifice, which was generally foremost in Paul's mind throughout his writings The idea is that Jesus, as divine, lowered himself to be born into the limitations of humanity.
Thus, Phillippians has a similar phrase (and even if arguably not written by Paul is in the Pauline school) Philippians 2:6 - though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7but emptied himself, taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. The issue for Paul is always the salvational nature of Jesus's sacrifice, which is far more extensive than just the crucifixion, and which points to the magnitude of God's love. It is Jesus as divinity entering into this little (almost petty) narrative of the gospel, where he has to deal with the inherent and constant limitation of being human, including the dullness and cowardice of the apostles, the betrayals, the ingratitude, the insults, and ultimately death. |
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