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Old 11-08-2005, 04:15 AM   #31
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rhutchin
If we take the story to encompass events that were observed and observable by Adam who then recorded that which he saw, then we get that which we read.

Diogenes the Cynic
The problem is that we already know for a fact that the story is fiction. There was no Adam. The story is just a variation on a Sumerian creation myth and the serpent is nothing but a talking snake. Satan in the Hebrew Bible (and in Judaism) is not an evil anti-god but just an obedient angel who has no connection whatever with the serpent in Genesis. There was no concept of a "devil" at the time the story was written. Satan as devil is a Christian invention and any Christian interpretation of the serpent as Satan is simply wrong. The New Testament is basically useless as a tool to inform us about the OT because its authors completely twisted and reinterpreted Hebrew scripture to fit their new religion.
The presuppositions one brings to the discussion are important to know. You assume the story to be fiction and I assume the story to be truth, so we go in different directions from that point.
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Old 11-08-2005, 04:23 AM   #32
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John A. Broussard
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The Christian god has done, is doing and will do as [He] pleases.

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I agree.

John A. Broussard
What follows is what you agreed with:

Quote:
Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
The Christian god reserves the right to punish innocent people as well as innocent serpents.

If the Christian god wants to turn virgin girls over to the Israelite warriors for later rape at leisure, that's just the way the Christian god works.

The big mistake non-Christians make in discussing the Christian god (as you have pointed out many times) is to think of that god as being bound by any moral code.

The Christian god has done, is doing and will do as it pleases.
Essentially, then, you are saying that human concepts of morality don't apply to your god.

It's just part of god's nature when god tortures people, kills babies and encourages soldiers to rape virgin girls.

Am I reading you correctly?
To clarify, I agreed with the statement, “The Christian god has done, is doing and will do as [He] pleases.� I also agree that human concepts of morality don't apply to God given that human concepts of morality derive from the selfish desires of people.

I disagree that God tortures people, kills babies and encourages soldiers to rape virgin girls, so this is not part of His nature.
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Old 11-08-2005, 04:28 AM   #33
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Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
... It fooled not only Eve, but also god who cursed the serpent even though it was nothing but an innocent bystander.
That's an interesting observation because God punishes people who are deceived by Satan and could be described as innocent if they did not willfully participate in the evil that Satan tempted them to do and they did not enjoy that evil. It kinda makes people pawns in the hands of God and Satan.
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Old 11-08-2005, 04:38 AM   #34
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Originally Posted by rhutchin
The presuppositions one brings to the discussion are important to know. You assume the story to be fiction and I assume the story to be truth, so we go in different directions from that point.
Right. You go to great (ad hoc) lengths to shoehorn the story (and several different characters found throughout the Bible) into your beliefs:

'This need not imply that the serpent was the mastermind but only that the serpent was a very suitable animal for Satan (the true mastermind) to use.'

'The decision to use the serpent would seem to be made on a variety of factors in addition to the ease of doing so. It could have been based on the serpent being “more subtil than any beast of the field.� '

"Satan", as you know and love him, is a product of a long evolution. The "serpent" in Genesis is not the "Satan" of your beliefs. The "Satan" in Job is not the "Satan" of your beliefs. The "Satan" you believe in (the Christian Satan) came to be much later. That belief has been projected onto various characters from the much older writings.

What results from that is the necessity to create ad hoc explanations as to why we should consider the various characters the same as the "Satan" of your beliefs. Such as 'perhaps Satan was a ventriloquist' and 'perhaps Satan used the serpent because the serpent was “more subtil than any beast of the field.� ' Gotta put a lot of axle grease on that shoehorn.
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Old 11-08-2005, 04:42 AM   #35
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Originally Posted by pharoah
Here are two verses in the NT that have always preplexed me:

Jude 1:6 (NIV)
And the angels who did not keep their positions of authority but abandoned their own home—these he has kept in darkness, bound with everlasting chains for judgment on the great Day.

2 Peter 2 (NIV)
For if God did not spare angels when they sinned, but sent them to hell, putting them into gloomy dungeons to be held for judgment;


Presumably the angels being referred to here are Satan and the fallen angels that supposedly rebelled against God, now referred to as demons by Christians. Now if these demons are bound in chains, how can they also be presently here on earth wreakng havoc, let alone present in the Garden of Eden?
In Jude we read,
5 I will therefore put you in remembrance, though ye once knew this, how that the Lord, having saved the people out of the land of Egypt, afterward destroyed them that believed not.
6 And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day.
7 Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire.

There are three events identified. If we take the events to be in chronological order, then the angels were "reserved in everlasting chains" after the destruction of Sodom and before the time that Israel left Egypt.

That would allow Satan and the angels to roam the earth and be the cause of the wickedness of the people that led to the flood and to that wickedness that led to the destruction of Sodom. After Sodom, the influence of the angels would have been diminished, so we should have seem less wickedness on the scale of Sodom. There are some who think that Satan was still free until Christ died on the cross at which point he was bound. The impact on the world is that we are told of relatively few people being saved in the OT and great numbers of people being saved in the NT.
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Old 11-08-2005, 05:22 AM   #36
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Originally Posted by rhutchin
The decision to use the serpent would seem to be made on a variety of factors in addition to the ease of doing so. It could have been based on the serpent being “more subtil than any beast of the field.�
Sorry, the bible depicts the serpent as acting alone. Your explanation doesn't wash.

However, even if Satan was pulling the strings, you've no idea why he'd have decided whether to use a serpent, or even why he'd use an animal to begin with (since the bible says Satan could have just as easily appeared as an angel of light, which would certainly have been a better guise). You also have the problem that the word "subtil" makes no sense unless it describes an animal acting autonomously. You also have the problem that the bible does not say what you're suggesting happened. Your position is riddled with flaws.
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Old 11-08-2005, 05:49 AM   #37
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Originally Posted by rhutchin
To clarify, I agreed with the statement, “The Christian god has done, is doing and will do as [He] pleases.� I also agree that human concepts of morality don't apply to God given that human concepts of morality derive from the selfish desires of people.

I disagree that God tortures people, kills babies and encourages soldiers to rape virgin girls, so this is not part of His nature.
Does the direct contradiction between these two consecutive paragraphs not bother you a little?

Who are YOU to override the Bible and arbitrarily decide that such acts are "not a part of God's nature", when human concepts of morality don't apply to God?

Of course, there's also another contradiction here, because Genesis 3:22 declares that we DO have the ability to distinguish between good and evil.
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Old 11-08-2005, 06:02 AM   #38
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Originally Posted by rhutchin
No serpent observable today has the power to reason and talk in a human language.
No satan observable today has the power to reason and talk in a human language either.
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Old 11-08-2005, 06:24 AM   #39
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Originally Posted by rhutchin
The reference to those who are blinded seems clearly to be unbelievers. There are two choices for the “god of this world.� They are Satan and God (Christ).

Satan is called the “prince of this world� in the following--

<snip>

Satan is also said to have free reign over people and to desire them—

<snip>

There are verses that give the ultimate control over people to God (because He is sovereign) but this merely allows God to let Satan operate freely to accomplish His purposes. Certainly, Satan would have a desire to blind people in order to see them destroyed and could only accomplished this if allowed by God.
But why does god allow the 'god of this world' to do this? I've asked this of you before, but I don't think you've given an answer (maybe there was a 'I dunno' somewhere).

How do you respond to the idea that god and satan may be the same entity? People with split personalities can argue against themselves, and your god was able to send his 'son' personality down to earth to be crucified, so why couldn't he send his 'trickster' personality down to be bound in chains?

Given that you admit to not knowing why your god decides certain actions (such as who is on the list of the elect), do you agree that it is at least possible that the true personality of your god is that of 'The Trickster'? That it was satan who created the universe and this world?

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Yes. This seems to have been the opinion of Peter also.

2 Peter 3
16 As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.
Do you think that your apologetics satisfy these conditions from 2 Cor?

Here they are again, for ease of reference:
Quote:
Originally Posted by 2 cor. 4:2
But have renounced the hidden things of dishonesty, not walking in craftiness, nor handling the word of God deceitfully; but by manifestation of the truth commending ourselves to every man's conscience in the sight of God.
Whether or not you consider yourself 'crafty' (is that a bad thing?), do you at least agree that you are not yet 'commending [yourself] to every man's conscience in the sight of [g]od' with your apologetics?
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Old 11-08-2005, 07:01 AM   #40
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Originally Posted by rhutchin
I disagree that God tortures people, kills babies and encourages soldiers to rape virgin girls, so this is not part of His nature.
So you don't believe in the Great Flood of Genesis, or the accounts of the battles against Midian in Numbers 31? (Killing off all but eight people among the entire world population by asphyxiation via drowning is not a particularly pleasant form of death, and leaving virgin girls for soldiers to do with as they please, presuming no rape, would be incredibly naive on God's part.) Those references claim that God either did it or ordered it, and you feel free to ignore those verses simply because they don't fit in what you think is "God's nature?" The only way we can determine anything about God's nature is to read what the Bible says about it. Since the Bible includes those unpleasant details about God's behavior, those can be incorporated into "God's nature." If you prefer to ignore those details, you have no standing to make any claim about what God's nature is at all, unless you concede that God's nature is simply what you prefer it to be.

WMD
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