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		#91 | |
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 Arrogant Elitism. Its not just for Sadducees anymore  
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		#92 | |
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		#93 | ||
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 I have no idea what you mean by that. Quote: 
	
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		#94 | |
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		#95 | |
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 Nowhere does it claim that a man is divine.  | 
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		#96 | |
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		#97 | |
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 chapter 1 [1]: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. [2]: He was in the beginning with God; [3]: all things were made through him, and without him was not anything made that was made. [4]: In him was life, and the life was the light of men. [5]: The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it. [14]: And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, full of grace and truth; we have beheld his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father. How do you interpret the above?  | 
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		#98 | |
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 These items refer to the Word of God and not to any man. Item [14] The Word became flesh ... The issue here is in which way did the Word become flesh. John, like Mark, has no virgin birth story. In GMark right after Jesus' baptism where Jesus receives the spirit of God it is stated "Immediately the Spirit impelled Him to go out into the wilderness." Now if Jesus is God why is it that the Spirit of God needs to impel him into the wilderness? In the GJohn there are many indication that the man and the Spirit of God are two distinct entities. I have no time now but I will post again to conclude.  | 
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		#99 | |
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 Verse [2] refers to the Word as "he". I claim that the word "Word" refers to Jesus. I don't care about the virgin birth. I do not personally believe that Jesus was or is a God. I do, however, believe that he existed as an actual person. My pontification here is only about whether GJohn referred to Jesus as a God. Dave  | 
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		#100 | |||||
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 You should care about the virgin birth because it was then that Matthew and Like claim that the Word became flesh even though the scene at Jesus' baptism does not fit any more as I have point out. Back to the GJohn. Quote: 
	
 The teaching is not the man's teaching but God's. Note the "It is of God or whether I speak speak from myself". I put a uncapitilized "m" otherwise it makes no sense. If Myself is God then the sentence is simply silly. Jesus is saying that what he teaches is not his own. Quote: 
	
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 Jesus is saying that the Father in him does the works not himself, ie not the man. When did Jesus receive the Spirit of the Father which abides in him and does His works??? At his baptism. Keep in mind the bit in Mark Quote: 
	
 In verse [12] the Spirit impels him into the wilderness. Jesus, the man, is possessed by the Spirit of God. This is the nature of the incarnation described in John. It is the Spirit of God which speaks and acts through the man. This is what John 14:10 is saying. You need to reread GJohn and not just assume what you have been told.  | 
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