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03-09-2005, 02:56 AM | #21 | ||||||
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Egyptians may have had Hebrew slaves, but not during or after the Hyksos perod. They had no foreign slaves and they guarded their borders against foreign infiltration of any sizeable entity. They frequently campaigned in the southern Levant through xenophobia regarding foreign invaders. The story of the walls of Jericho falling is inherited tradition from the Hyksos. It was the Egyptians during the Persian period who connected the Hebrews from Canaan with the Hyksos who went to Canaan. The Egyptians reinterpreted the Hyksos to be Hebrews and the Hebrews took it as fact. Read Josephus's Contra Apion for the Egyptian reinterpretations. I'd say that the exodus tradition is post-exilic, based on Egyptian insults of the Jews living in Egypt which equated the Hebrews with the Hyksos. spin |
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03-09-2005, 03:38 AM | #22 | |||||||
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03-09-2005, 05:29 AM | #23 | |||||||||
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On the Egyptians in Persian times equating the Hyksos with the Hebrews: Quote:
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03-09-2005, 06:36 AM | #24 | ||||||||
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The omission of the event (their actual invasion), on the other hand, might have so many reasons, I can see in my own country's folkloric tradition such omission without being the case of a cultural unity which is easily provable otherwise (for instance my country's folkloric traditions misses the mongol invasion while holds other ancestral stories) Quote:
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Using a similar line of reasoning, I am not interested in things which are not, but in things which are. That's why I'm very open in giving scenarios a chance because only so I can reach to positive claims to try to prove. Quote:
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I find very amusing to think of 36th century man reading one of my replies somewhere saying, for instance, about romans occuping Spain. And the amusement will be greater if he'll try to deny something of my existence or knowledge by arguing that Spain and Roman Empire were never contemporary. But instead of giving such an example, let's go for a real example, when the text is not ment to be a history line and a vicious interpretation would lead to wrong conclusion about the author or the cultural enviroment he lived in. The author of the poetry from the link above lived in XIXth century, studied in Vienna. http://www.mihaieminescu.ro/en/liter.../satire3_4.htm It describes a battle which took place in 1394/5 CE. If you remark it mentions as past the battle from Nicopolis (1396) and the knights of Malta (estabilished only in 1530). It's easier for a literary critique to imagine this as a literary procedure to give the sultan some things to brag about (as ottoman empire was at its start). But I can reach this conclusion only with a lot of informations available. Would anyone recognize a literaturization, a mythologization that happened millenia ago? Quote:
Meanwhile I'm very interested in your Hyksos=Hebrews theory and I look forward for a development of it. |
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03-09-2005, 08:01 AM | #25 | |
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03-09-2005, 09:41 AM | #26 |
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It is worth noting that Israel, Edom, Moab etc. never appear in the extant documents of the XVIII dynasty, not even in the Amarna letters that specifically deal with Palestine (though they do mention a group called habiru). In particular, Israel gets mentioned only under Merneptah.
Anat, I hope you don't mind this link to our discussion about the Nemirovskii theory that dates the Exodus around 1180. |
03-09-2005, 10:16 AM | #27 | |
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From MiddleMan:
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3 times 365 = 1095 cubic inches of feces per person per year (round down to 1000 cu. in.) 1000 times 3,000,000 = 3,000,000,000 cubic inches of feces in one year. 3,000,000,000 times 38 = 114,000,000,000 cubic inches of feces, total in 38 years. Now, 1 sq. ft. = 144 sq. in. Make that a layer 1 in. deep and you get 144 cu. in. 114,000,000,000/144 = 791,666,666.7 sq. ft. of feces, 1 inch deep. 1 sq. mile is 27,878,400 sq. ft. So, if the Exodites (classy new term) used a latrine that covered 1 sq. mile (about 9 sq. ft. per person, 3 ft. x 3 ft., which is generous), they would leave a layer of feces 28.4 inches, or over two feet, deep. Now, that's a lot of shit! RED DAVE |
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03-09-2005, 10:28 AM | #28 |
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Just for clarification's sake:
From the Historic/Archeaological perspective when did the Exodus or an Exodus occur (BCE)? Or did no Exodus of any kind actually occur? |
03-09-2005, 10:39 AM | #29 | |
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However, from reading the Bible one can postulate a 1440 BCE date, a 1554 BCE date or a 1220 BCE date. Just depends on how you hold the pages. |
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03-09-2005, 02:37 PM | #30 | |
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Supported by archaeology, in part, the Exodus is a historic fact. Date of Exodus: 1453 BC. Persons who deny the event as factual base their views on presuppositions which cannot be overcome because the factuality of the event jeopardizes the validity of secular worldviews. WT |
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