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Old 11-09-2006, 03:33 AM   #331
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whether you realize it or not, you are trying to have it both ways.
Not saying I couldn't be guilty of that, but at least I try really hard not to be. But if it's a mistake even critical thinkers can make, how much more susceptible to it would be people trying to accommodate old religious ideas to some new concepts?

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Yet you never justify why this would have made a difference
I have seen apologists make some pretty big deals out of differences that I think are a lot more trivial than that between a human being and a spirit being.
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Old 11-09-2006, 05:27 AM   #332
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Here are two questions for you:

1. Did Paul think that the son of God was born of a woman?
2. Did Paul think that the son of God became a human being?


...
Ben.
1. No. The Son of God is a spirit. This is mythical/mystical language.
2. If he did, he never said so.

On related imagery, what do you make of the child born to the woman in Revelation chapter 12?

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Old 11-09-2006, 06:07 AM   #333
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There is no such thing as "mystical language" per se.
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The Son of God is a spirit. This is mythical/mystical language.
That might be a promising debate.

Sure, son of God is mystical or theological. But born of a woman is normally quite literal, even in deeply theological texts like the Dead Sea scrolls or Job.

Not really sure about Revelation 12.

Spam and Ham, a mystical text can contain historical nuggets or literal elements. This is not either-or.

You seem to be saying that because Galatians is mainly a theological text it cannot contain literal expressions. What mincemeat such a rule would make of texts from around the world. The Dead Sea scrolls are highly symbolic, metaphorical, and mystical; what does the expression born of a woman mean in them? Likewise Job; what does that expression mean in Job?

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I believe the 'son of god' concept in this passage is symbolic for the potential godliness we all have within us. I would say the phrase "born of woman, born under the law" indicates that his intended audience for this letter is a group of Jewish mystical Christians, and that this phrase is a reference to them rather than some ethereal being of some kind. I think it's intentional that the Son is not specifically referred to as Jesus in this passage, because I think Paul's "son of god" is the manifestation of his "jesus christ" within us (the precursor to the holy spirit concept). Can I prove this is the right interpretation? No. I pulled it out of my ass.

But as I've stated several times in this thread, I'm just an ordinary guy with no special expertise in this area, so I certainly welcome any explanations as to why this thinking is wrongheaded.
In other Pauline passages the son of God is in fact Jesus Christ (Romans 1.4), who died for us (Galatians 2.20-21) and about whom Paul preached (2 Corinthians 1.19). Now suddenly the son of God is potential godliness in all of us? I daresay it is not difficult to disagree with such a reading. I find myself doing so without even trying.

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Old 11-09-2006, 06:24 AM   #334
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Perhaps your idea of "contemporary" and mine are different. I do not consider someone a contemporary unless there is geographical and temporal overlap between the two.
By this definition then I would not be George W. Bush's contemporary because I live in Canada, right ?

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Paul talks about Jesus in the past tense, and seems to know almost nothing about Jesus. Paul also never appeals to the authority of anyone who supposedly knew Jesus. How could Paul be a contemporary of Jesus, and apparently not even know people who personally knew Jesus? I have never seen anyone answer this with anything but unrealistic apologetic style answers.
I take it you have never been around people who are strongly religious. Paul was an obssesively religious man, and he appears to have suffered from bipolar disorder (aka manic-depression) which is marked by wild fluctuations of mood, from the highest flights of euphoric ecstasy to the deepest lows of despair. Some people with this profile in their middle-age develop acutely psychotic symptoms.

Paul (as the legendary "Saul") likely came into contact with the "Jesus movement" (which was not Christanity yet) through direct or indirect contact with a group of Greek speaking Jewish exiles from Jerusalem. We don't know where, but the circumstantial evidence points to the outside of Palestine. He, a pious Pharisee, was deeply offended by their philosophy and practices. What evidently offended him most was their ridiculous view of their departed idol "Jesus", who they admitted was executed but whom they held to have been a great power on earth, a righteous man, whom God resurrected to inaugurate Israel's restoration, and who having been rejected by his generation and killed by lawless men, sits in heaven on the right hand of God and will come back in Judgement, at the end of time, which Jesus and James proclaim draws near.

Paul thought this was all ridiculous rubbish and blasphemy. As an urbane, cosmopolitan Greek, he scoffed at the idea that God would have chosen a lowly, uneducated peasant from Galilee to restore Israel. As a pious Jew, Paul was deeply offended by some of the things people said Jesus taught, and did, and by his reputed disdain for observance.

He militated against the Jesus assemblies, and badmouthed Jesus as an impostor. Then, as Doherty reads the Acts, Jesus knocked Paul off his donkey when the latter traveled to Damascus. Well, what most likely happened is that Paul suffered an episode of acute manic excitement, in which the "truth" about Jesus was revealed to Paul by God himself. Paul was converted, or seen in a different, modern way, Paul's bipolarity became acute and attained permanent paranoid fixtures. Paul started to proclaim Jesus as the Christ, not the living individual, traditioned by the groups that he opposed, and continued to oppose after his conversion (!!!), but the heavenly Christ that lives in all of us and awaits us, if we only be pure and spiritual as Paul is.

That is the way I reckon it was. If it sounds strange, it's not my fault.

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The earliest records we have DO prove there was a Christian movement, but more importantly, they prove that there was significant discord within this movement. Paul's letters were letters of persuasion more than anything else, and they record significant differences between these churches.
It's like they say, whenever two Jews argue, you'll get three different opinions on everything.

Jiri
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Old 11-09-2006, 07:57 AM   #335
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....nota BENe , in a pasage in which he exhorts the fallen "sons" in his church to imitatio Christi which he - live, human - Paul acts out for them, although he too fell down from heaven or near that (Gal 4:12) ?
Are you not referring to Gal 4:14:

You despised not, nor rejected: but received me as an angel of God, even as Christ Jesus.
You despised not, nor rejected: but received me as an angel of God, even as Christ Jesus.

No, even though 4:13-14 are quite significant as they follow the train of Paul's thought, the real cognitive issue becomes revealed by 4:12:
Brethern, I beseech you, become as I am, for also I have become as you are(οτι καγω ως υμεις)
This IMHO articulates Paul's belief in his own higher nature and supernatural origin.

Jiri
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Old 11-09-2006, 08:48 AM   #336
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No, even though 4:13-14 are quite significant as they follow the train of Paul's thought, the real cognitive issue becomes revealed by 4:12:
Brethern, I beseech you, become as I am, for also I have become as you are(οτι καγω ως υμεις)
This IMHO articulates Paul's belief in his own higher nature and supernatural origin.
Gotcha. I still think 4:14 is great, though. There you have Paul saying that he was received "as an angel of God, even as Christ Jesus." So Paul is saying that he himself is a myth, eh? That he comes from the supralunar realm? That both he himself and Christ are mythical beings? Hilarious!

BTW, I thought your post explaining Paul's conversion was quite good. I would say, though, that there is no need to suggest that he suffered from mental illness. I think it more probable that his sheer intensity accounts for everything.
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Old 11-09-2006, 09:25 AM   #337
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Gotcha. I still think 4:14 is great, though. There you have Paul saying that he was received "as an angel of God, even as Christ Jesus." So Paul is saying that he himself is a myth, eh? That he comes from the supralunar realm? That both he himself and Christ are mythical beings? Hilarious!
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What has happened to all your joy? I can testify that, if you could have done so, you would have torn out your eyes and given them to me.
-Galatians 4:15
And apparently Paul was starting a movement where people demostrated their love and commitment by tearing out their eyeballs and giving them to one another as well!

He's using figurative language or exageration to emphasize a point. In v.14 Paul is merely saying that he was received with kindness and respect as a 'messenger' from God.
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Old 11-09-2006, 09:30 AM   #338
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I would add, however, that neither does Paul seem concerned to establish that the mother was human; it is assumed.
No, it is generally assumed for every other individual on the planet but Paul felt compelled to assert that Jesus was born of a woman. Metaphorical interpretations notwithstanding, the most obvious goal of such an assertion is to establish the humanity of the offspring by asserting the humanity of the mother.

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How likely is it that an author (like Paul) decided to use such a phrase for a person he knew to be mythical, metaphysical, metaphorical, or nonhuman?
I don't know how one establishes such a probability given such an ambiguous starting point but I think it is highly likely that such a phrase would be used by a person who believed that a divine entity had been incarnated. That's why I don't see this as any sort of argument against an HJ. IMO, a reinterpretation away from the most obvious meaning has to follow from establishing a mythical Jesus belief some other way.
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Old 11-09-2006, 09:51 AM   #339
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And apparently Paul was starting a movement where people demostrated their love and commitment by tearing out their eyeballs and giving them to one another as well!

He's using figurative language or exageration to emphasize a point. In v.14 Paul is merely saying that he was received with kindness and respect as a 'messenger' from God.
Right. So why do you not accept that his references to an otherworldly Christ are, likewise, a figurative way of talking about a real person?
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Old 11-09-2006, 10:00 AM   #340
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If you think that born of a woman is yet another example of his mystical language, one that I have missed, then you will need to provide evidence for such a view, since it is in fact a rather common way to express humanity.

My main purpose in adducing outside examples of this phrase (such as from, say, Josephus) is to counter a misconception that seems to pop up frequently on this very board, namely that born of a woman is an unusual way to call Jesus human. It is not unusual at all. Ancient texts from the OT to the Dead Sea scrolls to Euripides to the NT to the church fathers to Shakespeare (not ancient, I know) use such a phrase to mean human.
You know of examples where the phrase is used to establish or assert the humanity of a particular individual or you know of examples where the phrase is used as a reference to humanity (eg Mt 11:11)?

It has been my understanding that other examples fall into the latter category but not the former.
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