FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Yesterday at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 06-19-2008, 07:42 PM   #91
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Aug 2006
Location: Eastern U.S.
Posts: 4,157
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by thedistillers View Post
Why 1%? Where does that number come from? Why not 5%? Why not 10%? What methodology do you use to arrive at that number, 1%?
It's a random number to make a point. You'll have to actually bring up a certain text if you want harder figures.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by NinJay View Post

Where are you pulling the 99% number from?
This has already been answered.
Solitary Man -

You seem to be implying here that there are specific Biblical texts for which there exist hard figures comparing extant texts with an original versions. Is this what you mean to say? If so, please provide examples.

regards,

NinJay
-Jay- is offline  
Old 06-19-2008, 07:46 PM   #92
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Sep 2006
Location: ירושלים
Posts: 1,701
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by NinJay View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
It's a random number to make a point. You'll have to actually bring up a certain text if you want harder figures.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post

This has already been answered.
Solitary Man -

You seem to be implying here that there are specific Biblical texts for which there exist hard figures comparing extant texts with an original versions. Is this what you mean to say? If so, please provide examples.

regards,

NinJay
No, that's not what I meant to say. Nor am I sure how you got that. Please reread. If it helps, write out each point one at a time, read and reread.
Solitary Man is offline  
Old 06-19-2008, 08:00 PM   #93
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Mar 2007
Location: Canada
Posts: 586
Default

Quote:
It's a random number to make a point. You'll have to actually bring up a certain text if you want harder figures.
What "certain text" are you referring to, what hard figures do you have to propose, and what methodology did you use to arrive at those numbers?

Quote:
You've mischaracterized Roger, since he also holds on to that figure.
I haven't. He's the one who keeps mischaracterizing Ehrman (and generally accusing people of obscurantism for stating trivial facts) - despite the fact that he doesn't even appear to have read him. Have you actually read the thread from the start?
thedistillers is offline  
Old 06-19-2008, 09:49 PM   #94
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jan 2005
Location: USA
Posts: 1,307
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by andrewcriddle View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
Actually, if I recall correctly, the titles of his books were selected by the publishers. Well, at least for Misquoting Jesus.
I think The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture must be Ehrman's own coice of title. At least the text contains an interesting discussion of the popular meaning of corruption versus the technical meaning that implicitly refers back to the title.
You're right that it's his own title. He once told me that Bruce Metzger was pushing for him to rename it to Orthodox Correction of Scripture but he resisted.

Stephen
S.C.Carlson is offline  
Old 06-20-2008, 12:26 AM   #95
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2002
Location: N/A
Posts: 4,370
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by NinJay View Post
Hmmm. We need some precision in definition here....
All good points.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
Roger Pearse is offline  
Old 06-20-2008, 03:48 AM   #96
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Sep 2004
Location: Michigan, USA
Posts: 897
Default

Solitary man wrote:
Quote:
Quote:
Eq Wrote: Quote:
However, compare that to telling a fundamentalist that 1Tim (or say, the entire NT) is actually a forgery to which parts have since been added and subtracted, and you better run for cover.
A fundamentalist, maybe. But who cares about them? Why get worked up over crazies?
Um, you are aware, I hope, that the majority of Christians (around 70%) in the US believe every word of the Bible is literally true, and a majority of Christians in the US believe that animals were created in their present form within the past 10,000 years, right? We’ve discussed the data on that before here. Why talk about a huge and influential group of people? Well, because they are huge and influential, and because that's what most Christians are today in the US.

Quote:
Do you not think that there are also Greek pagan revivalists whose worship can also come from a Greek play?
Speaking of huge groups of people……

Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
That’s because in one case the work has always been the work of humans, and in the other case it radically changes from being the supreme God’s divine word into being the simple writings of humans.
Many fundamentalists I know accept that the Bible was composed by humans.
See above. (or are you going to say “humans as instruments of the holy spirit?) None of us here should make the mistake of thinking that most people are like us or our friends. Anecdotal evidence isn’t worth the paper it’s printed on because we aren’t average. Based on the data, it's clear that most Christians think that the Bible is the work of God, not just the work of fallible humans.

Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
This applies espeically to the small changes that can change meaning - like changing one word out of 100, so that Jesus is not just a servant of God but is equal to God. That massive difference cannot be overestimated, yet Roger seems to pretend it doesn’t exist. Toto and others have pointed this out.
It's not even relevant, though.
Sure it is. You said before that we know “99%” of a text. That 1% can put the message on it’s head. The fact is we do indeed have a pretty good idea of what these texts said in the second century – what changes it took to get them there is anyone’s guess. Most of the Biblical texts have a span of around 50 -100 years between when they were written and our first evidence of what they said (nearly always only from a proto-orthodox source). A text can be changed in a few minutes.

I see people (here and elsewhere) argue over the amount of change between the manuscripts we have (which is admittedly large), but the huge potential for change before that is usually ignored, and we know that Christians had no problem rewriting earlier texts. A good example is the G of Matthew, who rewrote much of Mark (making it more Jewish) without attribution.

Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Roger seems to think that pointing out the likelihood of some changes is the same as saying a text is completely unlike it’s original, and hence worthless
.
No! Roger, and might I add I as well, holds the position that those who deem a text worthless because there were changes adhere to a worthless position themselves - obscurantism. We all know there are some changes.
No, we don’t all know that. A large group of Christians, probably a majority, never thinks about the changes made to the Bible. Again, see above.

Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Roger ignores the fact that some texts have a much greater motive for changes than others.
If you think this is true, than you've never done any text critical work on the Classics.
Come on. Eternal torment is not a greater motivation than love for the classics? You’ve got to be kidding me.

Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
If we start with 95 plays by Euripides, and only 18 survive to modern times, those could well be a representative sample, since there weren’t incredibly strong motivations to preserve some plays and not others.
Or those could have been the best 18 out of 95. You don't know that. You're guessing here, and making guesses with very little evidence, I might add.
OK, fine – let’s say the 18 plays are not representative. Then my point is even stronger – that the collection of stuff in the NT is even less representative because it was specifically chosen to support a certain doctrine of a dominant church.

Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
However, contrast this with starting with 20 gospels, all claimed to be written by people in an apostolic succession, and today there are only 4 in our Bibles.
These four happen to be older (except one or possibly another) than all the other gospels we have. And besides, you did an inaccurate parallel. On the first one, you said survive, and on the second one, you said survive in our Bibles. Surely you cannot compare.
Sure I can. Who did the preserving, copying, etc? The proto-orthodox church. Of course the ones preserved by the preservers tend to be older – they didn’t preserve the contemporary ones that disagreed with them.

Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
These four all happen to agree (likely after changes) with the dominant church that ruled matters of doctrine for over 1000 years.
Somehow I don't think you've dived deep into church theological much.
OK, whatever. I know a lot more about church theology than most Christians (and that was true when I was still Christian too.)

I don't think a p155ing contest is useful here, so let's focus on more substantive discussions.


Equinox
Equinox is offline  
Old 06-20-2008, 05:02 AM   #97
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Mar 2003
Location: Nazareth
Posts: 2,357
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by andrewcriddle View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by DrZoidberg View Post

I gave my copy back to the guy I borrowed it from. So this was all from memory. The original thread creation was simply regarding whether or not this guy is kosher. Which he seems to be.

But there was quite a long section on just this. In which Christian areas the various formulations were found. It was just an example. There was plenty discrepancies between them due to different sects had different views on what Jesus was, and they changed their Bibles to match, (over time should be added).

But he was clear on that "God why have you forsaken me" is quite a clear Gnostic reference.
Codex Bezae and some Old Latin have mock me instead of forsake me in Mark (not Matthew).

However it is quite clear from Professor Ehrman's discussion on pages 224-225 of Lost Christianities that Ehrman regards forsaken me as the original. His point is that the change in a few later manuscripts from forsake to mock may well be an orthodox response to the way in which Gnostics interpreted the idea of Jesus being forsaken on the cross.

Andrew Criddle
Quote:
Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by JoeWallack View Post
The above completely misses Ehrman's point. Even on the referenced "224-225 of Lost Christianities" it misses Ehrman's point, which is best illustrated here.
Sorry Joe, but what you've reproduced fits what Andrew wrote perfectly.

Bart Erhman: "Assuming that Mark's Jesus cried out "why have you forsaken me," why would some scribes have changed it to "why have you reviled me"? Surely it's not unrelated to fact that Gnostics were using the verse to support their separationist christology."

From the above, point by point:

1. Mark's Jesus said "Why have you forsaken me?"
2. Some scribes changed it to "Why have you reviled me?"
3. Those scribes changed it because some Gnostics were using 1. to support their own "separationist Christology".

That's exactly what Andrew said.
JW:
This exchange is illustrative of what Separates us. Andrew left behind Ehrman's explanation that the offending word has a literal and primary meaning of left behind (as opposed to only "forsaken me"). Ehrman mentions this on Andrew's quoted Lost Christianities reference. Ehrman provides even more emphasis to this in The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture and provides excruciating emphasis in my excerpt.

The literal and common meaning of "left behind" is key to Ehrman's point as that is what supports Separationism, not "forsaken me". Here the Gnostics were favored by the literal meaning, specific context of the pericope and general context of "Mark". Hence the orthodox need to replace the offending word with a different word (just as they did on the other side with 1:10). "left behind" has a physical meaning and "forsaken me" has a figurative meaning. For you to miss this after I corrected Andrew in detail is Amazing.

I deliberately avoided attributing motive to Andrew's characterization that the offending word was simply "forsaken me" which the Gnostics interpreted Gnostically which makes it seem as though it was the Gnostics who were straining here. But since you belabor the point... Since Andrew is Christian unlike you I think you both missed Ehrman's key point, but for different reasons. I'll explain in a parable to help you understand:

Way back when I was an auditor the most disagreeable controller I ever met worked for a company that manufactured ceiling fans in an outlying part of Houston. The company barely paid minimum wage and it's cooling system consisted of some of it's ceiling fans (the defective ones) haphazardly attached to the ceiling (which doubled as a showroom). When it got over 100 (May to September) they would extend the courtesy to their employees of turning the fans on "high". The people who worked here were the ones who couldn't get a job at the local (air conditioned) Dairy Queen. The main effect for people like me was this had a severely negative effect on the accompanying female gene pool.

One day, in the course of spending about a half hour trying to avoid a simple yes or no auditing question, the controller revealed in unnecessary conversation that two of the most unattractive (anywhere) female employees were sisters. We auditors (the controller always insisted on an audience when answering questions) were greatly amazed because the sisters looked nothing alike and were fearful that each was outstandingly ugly in their own way. (Hell, they were ugli (plural for ugly). They looked like a low flying plane hit them in the face and than backed up and did it again.) Whereupon, the controller gleefully responded to our observation that they looked nothing alike, "And both are glad!"



Joseph

http://errancywiki.com/index.php?title=Main_Page
JoeWallack is offline  
Old 06-20-2008, 05:07 AM   #98
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Aug 2006
Location: Eastern U.S.
Posts: 4,157
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by NinJay View Post



Solitary Man -

You seem to be implying here that there are specific Biblical texts for which there exist hard figures comparing extant texts with an original versions. Is this what you mean to say? If so, please provide examples.

regards,

NinJay
No, that's not what I meant to say. Nor am I sure how you got that. Please reread. If it helps, write out each point one at a time, read and reread.
I got it from the part where you said "You'll have to actually bring up a certain text if you want harder figures." Perhaps I overreached on including the word "Biblical". What did you mean?
-Jay- is offline  
Old 06-20-2008, 07:05 AM   #99
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2002
Location: N/A
Posts: 4,370
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Equinox View Post
Most of the Biblical texts have a span of around 50 -100 years between when they were written and our first evidence of what they said ...
At this moment I am typing up stuff about the Greek classics. I'm looking at Diogenes Laertius. Oldest ms. written ca. 1200, perhaps 9 centuries later?

Quote:
I see people (here and elsewhere) argue over the amount of change between the manuscripts we have (which is admittedly large), but the huge potential for change before that is usually ignored, and we know that Christians had no problem rewriting earlier texts. A good example is the G of Matthew, who rewrote much of Mark (making it more Jewish) without attribution.
This is to confuse change within a text with the composition of new texts, tho.

Quote:
OK, fine – let’s say the 18 plays are not representative. Then my point is even stronger – that the collection of stuff in the NT is even less representative because it was specifically chosen to support a certain doctrine of a dominant church.
The canon of the NT did not come into being in this way, I have to tell you.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
Roger Pearse is offline  
Old 06-20-2008, 09:07 AM   #100
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Sep 2006
Location: ירושלים
Posts: 1,701
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by NinJay View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post

No, that's not what I meant to say. Nor am I sure how you got that. Please reread. If it helps, write out each point one at a time, read and reread.
I got it from the part where you said "You'll have to actually bring up a certain text if you want harder figures." Perhaps I overreached on including the word "Biblical". What did you mean?
I meant that texts are evaluated on a singular basis.
Solitary Man is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 06:36 PM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.