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Old 07-29-2005, 03:02 PM   #161
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jenn6162
In one day the nation of Israel was recognized by the US. I understand the criticism that the US was trying to fulfill the prophecy, but it was still fulfilled.
If that is the interpretation, it doesn't seem like much of a prophecy to me. If we assume that it is specifically referring to the official declaration of nationhood, why would anyone expect it to take longer than a day? Even if it was a declaration by the nation, rather than a recognition by others, it would still take place on a single day. There is nothing amazing about the "prophecy" if we interpret it this narrowly and nothing accurate about it if we interpret it more realistically.
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Old 07-29-2005, 04:27 PM   #162
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jenn6162
In one day the nation of Israel was recognized by the US.
What does that have to do with Isaiah?

That aside, your statement is incorrect: the process of recognizing Israel began on May 12 and did not complete until May 14: there is no definition of "one day" that can include such a long stretch of time. Worse, the recognition offered by the US (and virtually all other countries) is not, in fact, full recognition as Jerusalem is not accepted as belonging to Israel. Without full and legal posession of Jerusalem, Israel cannot be said to exist - even at this late date - in the prophetic sense.
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Old 07-29-2005, 05:16 PM   #163
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Originally Posted by Paradox
You're right, I did miss your point. Apologies.
However, the fact that it happened in one day isn't remarkable. A day is a nice round figure that is often used in the Bible and it's no surprise that it took a day to actually make the decision really, is it?
No need to apologize, I should have wrote my response differently.

Well by todays standards it is not remarkable, but in Isaiah's day wasn't it a bit unusual? I would think some kind of war would have to take place before a nation would change hands in the eighth century BC.
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Old 07-29-2005, 05:33 PM   #164
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Wallener
What does that have to do with Isaiah?
The prophecy?? Posted above, maybe I don't understand what you mean.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Wallener
That aside, your statement is incorrect: the process of recognizing Israel began on May 12 and did not complete until May 14: there is no definition of "one day" that can include such a long stretch of time. Worse, the recognition offered by the US (and virtually all other countries) is not, in fact, full recognition as Jerusalem is not accepted as belonging to Israel. Without full and legal posession of Jerusalem, Israel cannot be said to exist - even at this late date - in the prophetic sense.
If you don't mind I would like a source.

Quote:
THE DECLARATION OF THE ESTABLISHMENT OF THE STATE OF ISRAEL
May 14, 1948
On May 14, 1948, on the day in which the British Mandate over a Palestine expired, the Jewish People's Council gathered at the Tel Aviv Museum, and approved the following proclamation, declaring the establishment of the State of Israel. The new state was recognized that night by the United States.
http://www.mfa.gov.il
My information came from Israel Ministry of Foreign Affairs website

Jerusalem belongs to Israel.
http://www.jerusalem.muni.il/jer_main/f1_main.asp?lng=2

The prophecy is not contingent upon Israel being in control of Jerusalem. No where does Isaiah state that. Israel won the Six Day War and has control of Jerusalem.

Quote:
1967: Israel ends six-day war
Fighting in the Middle East has ended after Israel finally observed the UN ceasefire and halted her advance into Syria.
Within the last six days Israeli troops have taken territory many times larger than Israel itself and united the holy city of Jerusalem for the first time since 1948.
http://news.bbc.co.uk/onthisday/hi/d...00/3047177.stm

Notice that it say for the first time since 1948, so at the time Israel became a nation it had control over Jerusalem.
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Old 07-29-2005, 05:40 PM   #165
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Amaleq13
If that is the interpretation, it doesn't seem like much of a prophecy to me. If we assume that it is specifically referring to the official declaration of nationhood, why would anyone expect it to take longer than a day? Even if it was a declaration by the nation, rather than a recognition by others, it would still take place on a single day. There is nothing amazing about the "prophecy" if we interpret it this narrowly and nothing accurate about it if we interpret it more realistically.

I answered this in my response to Paradox.
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Old 07-29-2005, 05:53 PM   #166
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jenn6162
If you don't mind I would like a source.
Several Truman biographies discuss the multi-day process involved. Amazon even has them in stock.

Quote:
Jerusalem belongs to Israel
This is not recognized by the United States or any other significant nation on earth, nor is it recognized by the UN. Put another way: the US has not recognized Prophetic Israel until it recognizes that Jerusalem belongs to Israel.

Quote:
The prophecy is not contingent upon Israel being in control of Jerusalem.
It most assuredly is: it is a fundamental tenet of prophetic Judaism that there is no Israel without Jerusalem.
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Old 07-29-2005, 06:01 PM   #167
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Wallener
Several Truman biographies discuss the multi-day process involved. Amazon even has them in stock.
My info came from Israel's website


Quote:
Originally Posted by Wallener
This is not recognized by the United States or any other significant nation on earth, nor is it recognized by the UN. Put another way: the US has not recognized Prophetic Israel until it recognizes that Jerusalem belongs to Israel.
Only for PC reasons. Israel won the war.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Wallener
It most assuredly is: it is a fundamental tenet of prophetic Judaism that there is no Israel without Jerusalem.
And your source for this is? Be specific please.
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Old 07-29-2005, 06:14 PM   #168
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
I'm also fairly sure that scholars consider Isaiah to have been written over an extended period, by more than one author, and partly after the Babylonian exile.
A non-biased source would be helpful. Just how much of an extended period are we talking about?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Those who knew about the prophecy had the power to make it happen. However, there is still no good indication that 1948 was the return being referred to. The post-Babylonian exilic period was the second summons to Israel.

Yes, but Isaiah had no way of knowing that this was possible. How did nations come to be in Isaiah's day?

The other part of your question is a really good one. I need more time to adequately answer that one. You are good. You say 1 was the exodus and 2 was the babylonian return. I will need to gather sources and figure this out. If I lose this particular argument I will give you credit for stumping me. Not that that would be too tough to do. I personally think the key is the remnant, but I have to prove it.
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Old 07-29-2005, 06:25 PM   #169
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jenn6162
My info came from Israel's website
I was unaware Israel was the authoritative source on the inner workings of the US political process.

Quote:
Only for PC reasons. Israel won the war.
I don't see a "PC reasons" qualifiers anywhere in Isaiah.

Jerusalem as the eternal capital of Israel is part of the covenant beginning with David. In prophecy, it is the City of David that, amongst other things, the nations flock to: in the world we currently inhabit, the nations have flocked to Tel Aviv, not Jerusalem. According to the Hebrew texts, it cannot be claimed Israel has been recognized in a prophetically meaningful sense until Jerusalem is recognized as the capital of Israel.
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Old 07-29-2005, 06:29 PM   #170
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jenn6162
A non-biased source would be helpful. Just how much of an extended period are we talking about?
The normative Jewish view is that Isaiah was written in 3 main chunks, spanning a period of rougly 250 years.
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