Ben C Smith

You objected when I said that the proximity of Galatia to Pontus contributed zero to your theory, so I assume you think it contributes at least some positive value. In order to contribute something positive to your thesis, it must therefore not be merely convenient (it is certainly convenient on my theory, too), but rather more convenient to your own view than to other views.

So how is the proximity of Galatia to Pontus more convenient to your view than, say, to mine?

Not quite FedEx, but not all that bad, either. Usually letters were hand delivered by courier (often an acquaintance making the trip anyway).

Ben.

dog-on

Why didn't Oral Roberts setup ORU in China, Ben? If someone in the first century was really going to start churches, wouldn't a certain proximity just kind of make sense, considering the significant logistical challenges of just getting around at that time?


Not quite FedEx, but not all that bad, either. Usually letters were hand delivered by courier (often an acquaintance making the trip anyway).

Ben.[/QUOTE]

Thanks for this information.

Ben C Smith

Again, how is the proximity of Galatia to Pontus more convenient to your view than to mine? (Furthermore, why Galatia? If proximity just kind of makes sense, why not Pontus itself?)

Also, if Marcion having the epistle to the Galatians in hand fits well with Marcion living in a region adjacent to Galatia, what fits well with Marcion having the epistles to the Thessalonians or to the Philippians or to the Laodiceans in hand?

Also, you appear to be assuming that Marcion was really writing Galatians to the Galatians. If so, why do you assume this? The three pastoral epistles in the NT are both pseudonymously (IMHO) attributed to Paul and addressed to Timothy and Titus. Assuming with me for a moment that the attribution to Paul was fictitious, do you now assume that the addressing of these letters to Timothy and Titus was factual? IOW, what reason do you have for supposing without argument that any pseudonymous epistle, already assumed to be fictitious in its authorial attribution, is factual with regard to its address? If Marcion attributed his epistle to Paul fictitiously, what makes you think he addressed it to the Galatians factually?

Finally, if Marcion having Galatians means that he intended to start churches in Galatia, does Marcion having 1 and 2 Thessalonians and Philippians mean that he intended to start churches in Thessalonica and Philippi? If not, why not? If so, what does that do to any argument from regional adjacency?

Ben.

dog-on

Well Ben, after having pondered this for some time, I have no adequate response to your assualt, I will concede that the geographical location does not add anything to the argument that Marcion may have written Galatians.

:notworthy: