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Old 12-02-2009, 05:31 PM   #41
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Well, if you repeat the same fallacy over and over, I must show you everytime that what you write does not in any way support the information supplied in the NT or Church writings.
And, your argument is not subtle, it is blatantly in error.
Although I know that discussion with you is pointless, I will respond nonetheless.
Actually, thinking that Paul is after Mark is a blatant error and in that you are going against the majority. If you are maybe a fan of Dutch Radicals I do not need your assistance to be acquainted with their theories about Paul.
This discussion is not about the majority, it is about sources of antiquity that can support your PET theory. You are using ambiguous statements in the Pauline Epistles where the writer appear confused as evidence.

I do not represent the Dutvh Radicals.

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I don't understand your need to react to every post which is against your conviction. The whole forum is overloaded with your reactions which are nothing more but never-ending repetitions of the same thing.
I will always respond to those who present ambiguity as facts.

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But the whole argument is about Paul being a model for Mark's Jesus. For example look Galatians 1:15-16 where Paul says: "But when God, who set me apart from birth and called me by his grace, was pleased to reveal his Son in me".
This is very close to Mark's baptismal proclamation-revelation: "Thou art my beloved Son; with thee I am well pleased."
In Mark's Transfiguration scene Paul is also metaphorically present on the mountain with Peter, James and John as Jesus.
In 2. Corinthians 11-12 Paul challenges the super-apostles, in which he alludes to James, Peter and John, those reputed to be pillars as we know from Galatians.
But, you are just taking the passages out of context. The author of Mark is very specific and appears to have fabricated his Jesus story from Hebrew Scripture, the Septuagint or a similar source.

The author of gMark may have used any of the many passages where the Lord spoke through clouds as found in Hebrew Scripture


Exodus 24:16 -
Quote:
And the glory of the LORD abode upon mount Sinai, and the cloud covered it six days and the seventh day he called unto Moses out of the midst of the cloud.
Exodus 34:5 -
Quote:
And the LORD descended in the cloud, and stood with him there, and proclaimed the name of the LORD.

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Originally Posted by ph2ter
Mark also shows confusion because Peter wants to make three booths which is totally confused reaction.
I argue that 2 Peter and 2 Corinthians speak about the visions. Mark conflated those two visions into one in his Transfiguration scene.
2 Peter says that the voice came from the Majestic Glory, from heaven, when they were on the sacred mountain. Sacred mountain is euphemism for the place where someone can meet God which is equivalent to heaven.
Even the Church writer Eusebius claimed that 2 Peter did not belong to the Canon and was not genuine.

Church History 3.3.1

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1. One epistle of Peter, that called the first, is acknowledged as genuine. And this the ancient elders used freely in their own writings as an undisputed work. But we have learned that his extant second Epistle does not belong to the canon....

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How do you know that 2 Peter is written after Mark?
I did not write that "I know", please read my posts carefully so that I would not have to repeat myself like a broken record.

I asked you a question. Look at the passage.

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How could the author of gMark even use 2 Peter, when 2 Peter is likely to have been written well after gMark?
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And how then you can claim that Paul is written after Mark?
If he is written after Mark then he would surely mention something about the miracles or preaching of Jesus or where he lived.
Paul has very little information about Jesus, and Mark has many. What is more likely, Paul knowing Mark or Mark knowing Paul?
In the NT, Paul was introduced to Jesus after he had ascended to heaven. Paul was in contact with the post-ascended revealed Jesus.

And the author of Mark appears not to be aware of the revealed Jesus since his Jesus preached the Gospel of the Kingdom of God in parables ONLY to the Jews and the revealed Jesus told the Pauline writer to preach "Christ crucified and resurrected" to save all mankind from sin, both Jews and Gentiles.

And further gMark's Jesus spoke in parables so that the Jews would not understand him, but the revealed Jesus through the Pauline writer was very clear to all of mankind. Without the resurrection, there would have been no salvation, it seems that gMark's Jesus did not even know that, he did not teach his disciples the significance of the resurrection.

There is simple no evidence to support your pet theory that the Pauline Epistles and 2 Peter was used by the author of gMark.

The biography of gMark's Jesus is not from the Pauline Epistles.
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Old 12-02-2009, 05:37 PM   #42
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The mention of Peter in Gal 2:7-8 has all the earmarks of an orthodox interpolation.
I am not disputing your claim, but I would like to ask whether or not the text of P46 corresponds with those of Codices Sinaiticus and Vaticanus--both of which write "Peter", i.e. the "interpolation" must have occurred prior to the early fourth century, not really the time frame we associate with "orthodox interpolation", right? (Pre-Eusebius)

P46, as I understand it, was written in the mid second century, hence, perhaps a century or more, before the two aforementioned codices.

If in fact, P46 has the same text as the two codices, what should we then conclude, regarding this purported episode of interpolation?

In other words, with something like the long ending of Mark, or the Pericope in John, I understand that one describes those passages to "interpolation", because extant copies authored in the 4th-5th centuries do not share a common text, when compared with more recently authored documents copied centuries after creation of those two codices.

But, in the case of "Peter" appearing in Galatians 2: 7-8, I don't find any example of text which omits Peter's name, or employs "Cephas", or any other name, therefore, I do not understand why one should consider this a case of "interpolation", rather than possible carelessness by the original author(s).

Can you illustrate what you mean by "earmarks" for these two lines of text, that lead you to suspect possible interpolation....?
There were several in the post you were responding to.

At the same time, comparing all the various manuscripts containing Galatians, while there is some scribal fluctuation as to whether Cephas or Peter in other locations, regarding 2:7-8 they are always Peter, ie it was apparently added after the scribal indecision had occurred, but when the figure had been strongly decided to be Cephas = Peter and Peter had gained apostolic ascendancy.


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Old 12-02-2009, 08:18 PM   #43
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I am not disputing your claim, but I would like to ask whether or not the text of P46 corresponds with those of Codices Sinaiticus and Vaticanus--both of which write "Peter", i.e. the "interpolation" must have occurred prior to the early fourth century, not really the time frame we associate with "orthodox interpolation", right? (Pre-Eusebius)

P46, as I understand it, was written in the mid second century, hence, perhaps a century or more, before the two aforementioned codices.

If in fact, P46 has the same text as the two codices, what should we then conclude, regarding this purported episode of interpolation?

In other words, with something like the long ending of Mark, or the Pericope in John, I understand that one describes those passages to "interpolation", because extant copies authored in the 4th-5th centuries do not share a common text, when compared with more recently authored documents copied centuries after creation of those two codices.

But, in the case of "Peter" appearing in Galatians 2: 7-8, I don't find any example of text which omits Peter's name, or employs "Cephas", or any other name, therefore, I do not understand why one should consider this a case of "interpolation", rather than possible carelessness by the original author(s).

Can you illustrate what you mean by "earmarks" for these two lines of text, that lead you to suspect possible interpolation....?
There were several in the post you were responding to.

At the same time, comparing all the various manuscripts containing Galatians, while there is some scribal fluctuation as to whether Cephas or Peter in other locations, regarding 2:7-8 they are always Peter, ie it was apparently added after the scribal indecision had occurred, but when the figure had been strongly decided to be Cephas = Peter and Peter had gained apostolic ascendancy.


spin
The bigger issue with Gal 2:7 is that it "pre-empts" 2:9 in dividing the missions. After the insert, 2:9 only ratifies a preexisting status quo, which is hard to fathom given that Paul goes to Jerusalem transparently to seek recognition from the saints. (The 'poor' in Gal 2:10 are transparently the the 'poor saints' of Rom 15:26). Instead, he ends up dealing with the 'pillars' whom he detests. The 2:7-8 mollifies and attempts to neutralize the brutal οἱ δοκοῦντες στῦλοι (so-called pilars) in 2:9 which in the presumed original text followed directly οἱ δοκοῦντες οὐδὲν προσανέθεντο (those who seemed to be something contributed nothing to me) in 2:6.

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Old 12-02-2009, 08:41 PM   #44
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The bigger issue with Gal 2:7 is that it "pre-empts" 2:9 in dividing the missions. After the insert, 2:9 only ratifies a preexisting status quo, which is hard to fathom given that Paul goes to Jerusalem transparently to seek recognition from the saints.
This was all said in my first post in the thread.

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(The 'poor' in Gal 2:10 are transparently the the 'poor saints' of Rom 15:26). Instead, he ends up dealing with the 'pillars' whom he detests. The 2:7-8 mollifies and attempts to neutralize the brutal οἱ δοκοῦντες στῦλοι (so-called pilars) in 2:9 which in the presumed original text followed directly οἱ δοκοῦντες οὐδὲν προσανέθεντο (those who seemed to be something contributed nothing to me) in 2:6.
Bringing out the negative regard Paul has for the pillars is an important issue and it is well to stress it. It certainly dims the glow of 2:7-8.


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Old 12-03-2009, 06:47 AM   #45
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FWIW, Gal 2:7-8 isn't in the reconstructed version of Marcion's Galatians.
Thank you. I appreciate this suggestion.

As I understand it, Marcion himself altered some text, deleting references to Judaism, maybe that is not accurate....

Further, unless I have missed this boat, too, none of Marcion's writings, or copies of his books, exist at present. As I understand it, we know of Marcion, mainly because he sought to minimize the contradictions between the four gospels, selecting Luke and only Luke among them. Further, I think he accepted only some of Paul's letters, regarding others as counterfeit....In other words, I would be reluctant to assume that Galatians 2:7-8 represent "orthodox interpolation" based upon xyz from "Marcion"....

In conclusion, I am not sure that I would rely on anything attributed to Marcion, unless some new, authentic document emerged....

Thanks again for the suggestion, much appreciated...
avi
Here is a version of Marcion's "Galatians" that was posted by Jake Jones a few months ago. This is from the introduction:

Quote:
Abbreviations are provided in the right margin to indicate the Patristic sources for passages, a system borrowed from Paul-Louis Couchoud which he utilised for his translation of Marcion's gospel (The Creation of Christ, p.318ff, Watts& Company, 1939).

The abbreviations which occur most often:
T.- Tertullian, Adversus Marcionem, Bk.V.
E. - Epiphanius, Adversus Haeresies, Section.42.
A.- Adamantius, Dialog (Parts I, II, V).
Rufin - The Latin version of Adamantius.
O. - Origen
Hier.- Hieronymus, cited from the notes of Zahn/Harnack in their reconstructions.

In the left hand margin, SyP = variant reading from the Syriac Peshitta.
This translation was generated from the Greek-English Interlinear of the reconstruction. Some notes of possible interest are provided. The English translation itself is admittedly conjectural in places, as also are the notes. One such creative liberty is the name for the Marcionite Savior, "Isu Chrestos" - "Isu" derived on the designation of Syrian Marcionites, the spelling for "Chrestos" (=the Good one ) derived from an ancient inscription to a Marcionite synagogue
I think Marcion did do some editing of the Pauline writings, but I also think that the "Catholics" did not simply present "the originals". That they did some interpolating to combat the immensly popular Marcionites to tame the apostle of the heretics. I don't think either are to be trusted, but it seems as though Marcion is the first witness to a body of Pauline writings.
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Old 12-03-2009, 01:01 PM   #46
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FWIW, Gal 2:7-8 isn't in the reconstructed version of Marcion's Galatians.
Thank you. I appreciate this suggestion.

As I understand it, Marcion himself altered some text, deleting references to Judaism, maybe that is not accurate....

Further, unless I have missed this boat, too, none of Marcion's writings, or copies of his books, exist at present. As I understand it, we know of Marcion, mainly because he sought to minimize the contradictions between the four gospels,
The texts are certainly lost. Indeed it isn't clear whether late antique Marcionites used Marcion's knackered text; there are no references to it, unless anyone knows better.

Tertullian, in his monster Adversus Marcionem, goes through Marcion's text, chunk by chunk, commenting on what Marcion has omitted; and on how what he has NOT omitted itself demonstrates Marcionism to be wrong. The stuff is in AM4 (the gospel) and AM5 (the letters).

So we have quite a bit of concrete evidence on how the text did read. It's not as good as a direct transmission, but a lot better than one might suppose.

Marcion's concern was to remove the Jewish element from the NT.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
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Old 12-03-2009, 01:19 PM   #47
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Thank you Roger, very instructive, as usual!!!
regards,
avi
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Old 12-03-2009, 03:00 PM   #48
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Thank you. I appreciate this suggestion.

As I understand it, Marcion himself altered some text, deleting references to Judaism, maybe that is not accurate....

Further, unless I have missed this boat, too, none of Marcion's writings, or copies of his books, exist at present. As I understand it, we know of Marcion, mainly because he sought to minimize the contradictions between the four gospels,
The texts are certainly lost. Indeed it isn't clear whether late antique Marcionites used Marcion's knackered text; there are no references to it, unless anyone knows better.

Tertullian, in his monster Adversus Marcionem, goes through Marcion's text, chunk by chunk, commenting on what Marcion has omitted; and on how what he has NOT omitted itself demonstrates Marcionism to be wrong. The stuff is in AM4 (the gospel) and AM5 (the letters).

So we have quite a bit of concrete evidence on how the text did read. It's not as good as a direct transmission, but a lot better than one might suppose.

Marcion's concern was to remove the Jewish element from the NT.
Spoken like a true believer. Of course, we don't know when the gospel of Luke was compiled. The earliest text we can date seems to be the gospel of Marcion, which naturally enough dates to the life of a historical person, ie Marcion himself, a good fifty years or so before Tertullian wrote his hackwork. The earliest we can date Luke is to the time prior to the writing of Irenaeus. There was plenty of time for good christian redactors to do their job.

One should, for literary/redactional purposes, consider Marcion as the fourth synoptic, though we are only reconstructing it after it's been through the grind of Tertullian destructive efforts.


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Old 12-03-2009, 03:07 PM   #49
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One should, for literary/redactional purposes, consider Marcion as the fourth synoptic, though we are only reconstructing it after it's been through the grind of Tertullian destructive efforts.


spin
How do you know, as you seem to claim you do, that Marcion's text suffered at Tertullian's hands?

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Old 12-03-2009, 08:40 PM   #50
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Thank you. I appreciate this suggestion.

As I understand it, Marcion himself altered some text, deleting references to Judaism, maybe that is not accurate....

Further, unless I have missed this boat, too, none of Marcion's writings, or copies of his books, exist at present. As I understand it, we know of Marcion, mainly because he sought to minimize the contradictions between the four gospels,
The texts are certainly lost. Indeed it isn't clear whether late antique Marcionites used Marcion's knackered text; there are no references to it, unless anyone knows better.

Tertullian, in his monster Adversus Marcionem, goes through Marcion's text, chunk by chunk, commenting on what Marcion has omitted; and on how what he has NOT omitted itself demonstrates Marcionism to be wrong. The stuff is in AM4 (the gospel) and AM5 (the letters).
But, in "Against Macion" Adversus Marcionem, the writer using the name Tertullian did say that Marcion's name was NOT on the document, it was really ANONYMOUS.

This is the writer using the name Tertullian in Adversus Marcionem stating that the "Antithesis" has no ascribed author.

Adversus Marcionem 4.2
Quote:
Marcion, on the other hand, you must know, ascribes no author to his Gospel, as if it could not be allowed him to affix a title to that from which it was no crime (in his eyes) to subvert the very body.
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Originally Posted by Roger Pearce
So we have quite a bit of concrete evidence on how the text did read. It's not as good as a direct transmission, but a lot better than one might suppose.
Adversus Marcionem appears to be filled with mistakes. The writer using the name Tertullian appears to be loaded with erroneous information about the authorship, dating and chronology of the Gospels, Acts of the Apostles and the Pauline writings.

It is therefore very likely that the writer using the name Tertullian may have many errors about Marcion. It must be noted that Marcion may have been dead long before Adversus Marcionem.

There is really nothing concrete in Adversus Marcionem, even the writer called Tertullian claimed that there were three versions of Adversus Marcionem in his name.
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