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11-25-2009, 01:01 PM | #51 | ||
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How did the NT Jesus single-handedly manage to beat up others and create havoc at the Temple but did not suffer any consequences at all? Jesus was not even constrained. This is Josephus on Jesus of Ananus and his disturbance at the Temple. See http://www.earlyjewishwritings.com Wars of the Jews 6.5 Quote:
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11-25-2009, 01:02 PM | #52 | ||
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If the Jews could execute Stephen, why couldn't they execute Jesus for Blasphemy? Why go to Pilate? Quote:
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11-25-2009, 09:36 PM | #53 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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The comparison that follows is from Super Skeptic Neil Godfree @: http://vridar.info/xorigins/josephus/2jesus.htm
While I think the comparisons in the table are somewhat overstated, if you apply proper criteria for parallels, similarity in language, scope, similarity in context, consistency and sequence, it's clear that Josephus is "Mark's" source here. This has several important implications: 1) Dating - "Mark" is post Josephus 2) "Mark" wrote the original Passion narrative Less important is the significance of Josephus above to this Thread. My guess is Josephus is giving a Legend here and not history. At a minimum though, presumably Josephus thought it could be historical. Josephus is only a negative example though to my assertion that Jesus' ("Mark's") Temple actions, if historical, would have earned him a one way ticket to the next life. Josephus gives no evidence that anyone, "The Jews" or the Governor, thought that badmouthing the Temple warranted the death penalty. All this does is discredit "Mark" but we already know that "Mark's" Passion is not historical. That's my point. Regarding Jesus' supposed Temple actions, what would be most important from a historical standpoint is what interpretation authority gave to the actions and not what interpretation the actor gave. Overturning, expelling and preventing vessels would have been impossible anyway as described but let's say Jesus did it to a much lesser extent. I think this would have been interpreted by the present authority as theft and they would have been authorized to use deadly force if necessary to prevent it. If Jesus was somehow captured instead I think the Governor would have interpreted this as an attack against the taxation system which merited the death penalty. Josephus does tell us that understandably this was the main Jewish resentment towards Rome and it's common sense that what was most important to Rome was collecting taxes. Hence Jesus would be X-ton Jesus. The point here is that "Mark" is clearly fiction as to what Jesus was supposedly accused of in an effort to get rid of him. Speaking against the Temple was known not to be effective here while threatening the tax system was known to be effective. The fiction here goes quite well with the larger fiction of the Passion and even larger fiction of "Mark". Josephus http://www.errancywiki.com/index.php?title=Main_Page |
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11-26-2009, 01:19 AM | #54 |
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This would then make xianity the only known religion with a convicted fellon as a god or son of god. Explains a lot.
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11-26-2009, 10:54 AM | #55 | ||
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There is dispute among scholars as to how far this represented the actual situation in the Roman Empire but on common-sense grounds the Romans would have been foolish to grant unrestricted discretion to the indigenous authorities in capital cases. How far the cases of Stephen and Jesus as reported in the NT are contradictory is not clear. Stephen seems to have been convicted on the narrow charge of advocating the overthrow of the temple while the attempt by the Jewish authorities to convict Jesus on this specific charge seems to have failed. One might speculate that explicit advocacy of the destruction of the temple was in the small category of cases for which the Jewish authorities could execute without reference to the Roman Governor. The failure to convict Jesus (unlike Stephen) of this specific charge made it necessary to involve Pilate. However there is little hard evidence for this speculation. Andrew Criddle |
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11-27-2009, 11:19 AM | #56 | ||
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11-27-2009, 02:27 PM | #57 | ||
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11-27-2009, 02:33 PM | #58 | |
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With James, there was an administrative interregnum; and so, with no Roman governor in place, the locals took matters into their own hands. |
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11-27-2009, 05:02 PM | #59 | ||
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11-27-2009, 06:29 PM | #60 | |||
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On the timetable suggested for the crucifixion and Paul's involvement with the emerging Jesus cult in Jerusalem, the pre-existent church of James and its adoption of the tragic passing of the Galilean Jesus as emblematic of the woes of the end-times, explains - to me at least - the historical origins of the movement that later became Christianity. Consider the following passage from Epiphanius' Panarion, book 29, and his confusion around the origin of the designation Nazarene (Nazorean). By his own admission, it was accepted and replaced the older designation of Jessaeans when they came to faith in Jesus (5,6). There is further conflation of Nazoreans with Nasareans in 5,7. who Epiphanius indicates without equivocation as a separate sect which was before Christ. Quote:
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