FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Yesterday at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 12-20-2009, 02:12 PM   #191
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jan 2007
Location: Mondcivitan Republic
Posts: 2,550
Default

Abe,

Welcome to nouns and articles that have prepositional meaning built into them. TOU = "of/from the," TW = "in/to/by the," two other forms signify the noun or article is the subject or object of a sentence, - plus another complete set of forms to signify these meanings in the plural. Its a lot like Latin, Spanish, French and Italian. Don't even get me started on Greek verbs (over 100 possible forms for most verbs - usually tacked to the ends of verb stems)!

DCH

Quote:
Originally Posted by ApostateAbe View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
Umm, it doesn't work that way. "tou" is a genitive form of what is in English "the". It isn't a preposition, but an article.


spin
Cool, thanks. The translation I used translated "του" to "OF-THE" as if it is both meanings. I took it as a preposition.
DCHindley is offline  
Old 12-20-2009, 04:35 PM   #192
Contributor
 
Join Date: Sep 2002
Location: MT
Posts: 10,656
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by DCHindley View Post
Abe,

Welcome to nouns and articles that have prepositional meaning built into them. TOU = "of/from the," TW = "in/to/by the," two other forms signify the noun or article is the subject or object of a sentence, - plus another complete set of forms to signify these meanings in the plural. Its a lot like Latin, Spanish, French and Italian. Don't even get me started on Greek verbs (over 100 possible forms for most verbs - usually tacked to the ends of verb stems)!

DCH
Thank you, that clears it up. It is great you know a few things about Greek. I have a lot to learn about Greek. I use a lot of online translating, but I get mixed up with all the various forms of words.
ApostateAbe is offline  
Old 12-20-2009, 06:59 PM   #193
Contributor
 
Join Date: Jun 2000
Location: Los Angeles area
Posts: 40,549
Default

The interchange between Rick and spin on what Rick calls "anti-realism" has been split off here
Toto is offline  
Old 12-20-2009, 08:37 PM   #194
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Petergdi View Post
Lord (Kurios) in Paul is two things

1) Part of the slavery metaphor by which he describes being a follower of Christ. The way he opens his letters, "Paul, a servant (doulos) of Christ Jesus" is a the flip side of "Lord Jesus Christ" This would probably be much more obvious to his original readers than it is to most modern readers because the kurios/doulos pairing was part of their daily lives.
While it's not specifically slavery (merely subservience, class, power), the basic concept is correct.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Petergdi View Post
2) Kurios is the usual stand in for the tetragrammaton.
Thus far, we're fine. It's "The lord said to my lord". But given the reverence for ha-Shem at the time, you veer into my-brain-hurts time with the following.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Petergdi View Post
Paul plays around with the two meanings in a way that might be thought to border on blasphemy.
That last observation should be a warning to you not to take seriously the idea of Paul straying in the manner you imply.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Petergdi View Post
So in the hymn in Philippians 2, which some people think predates Paul, the idea is that because Christ Jesus was obedient to the point of death on the cross, God exalted Jesus by giving him God's own Name thus making it right that we should call Jesus "kurios."
Though Phil 2 is impressive with its striking christology, it's not a provocation to the "border on blasphemy". That blashemy is more likely from marginal comments from non-Jewish commentators later included in the text.


spin
spin is offline  
Old 12-20-2009, 11:49 PM   #195
Contributor
 
Join Date: Feb 2006
Location: the fringe of the caribbean
Posts: 18,988
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Petergdi View Post

Based on my own reading about the Ebionites, Paul's Christology is essentially Ebionite. Paul's understanding of the role of Nomos/Torah/Law is offensive to the Ebionites, but Paul's understanding of the status of Jesus seems pretty close.

Peter.
Your claims are fallacies.

The Ebionites rejected ALL the Epistles with the name Paul according to a Church writer using the name Eusebius.

This is Church History 3.27.4
Quote:
4. These men [the Ebionites], moreover, thought that it was necessary to reject all the epistles of the apostle, whom they called an apostate from the law, and they used only the so-called Gospel according to the Hebrews and made small account of the rest...
And Paul did NOT consider that Jesus was an ordinary man,unlike the Ebionites, but the Son of God, and preached that faith was necessary for salvation and that the Law was a curse to them who abide by them and is of very little use, but the Ebionites still obeyed the Laws of Moses and discarded all the Pauline writings and considered him just an ordinary man.

Church History 3.27.2

Quote:
2. For they [the Ebionites] considered him a plain and common man, who was justified only because of his superior virtue, and who was the fruit of the intercourse of a man with Mary. In their opinion the observance of the ceremonial law was altogether necessary, on the ground that they could not be saved by faith in Christ alone and by a corresponding life.
The Ebionites' Christology was based on a common man as the product of intercourse of Mary with a man and the Laws of Moses.

Paul's Christology was based on FAITH and the HOLY GHOST of god, called the son of God, who resurrected and ascended through the clouds.

Paul was a reject and an apostate to the Ebionites.
aa5874 is offline  
Old 12-21-2009, 12:25 AM   #196
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: May 2002
Location: oz
Posts: 1,848
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Rick Sumner View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto View Post
The NT is what is at issue here.
Ed Sanders, Paul and Palestinian Judaism (or via: amazon.co.uk). Whether one agrees with his assessment or not, his appraisal of first century Judaism is a solid historical inquiry.

... "Oh, they don't count, they're not real historians."
I've come in late but this caught my eye.
I'm assuming we are partly in the midst of a discussion on historians [whatever they are, whatever they do], historical methods, scholars, christian and/or otherwise, and the interpretation of history with respect to christian texts and origins.

Years ago I read a book in which the author described himself as follows on page 76:
"I am an academic, a professional scholar and historian by education and inclination ...I do not start with a picture of what our subject looked like".

That's nice I thought, but why then did that author introduce his book on page 1 thus:
"On a spring morning in about the year 30ce 3 men were executed by the Roman authorities in Jerusalem"

The author?
E.P Sanders "The Historical Figure of Jesus" Penguin 1993 London.
yalla is offline  
Old 12-21-2009, 07:07 AM   #197
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Mar 2005
Location: Darwin, Australia
Posts: 874
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by ApostateAbe View Post

Would you at least take probability estimates for the provenance of texts as legitimate?

No, because "probability estimates" are not evidence substitutes. Probability estimates can be drawn from evidence in answers to questions we put to evidence, but cannot be used in place of evidence itself.

Where would one start to establish "probability estimates" for the authorship of any of the gospels?

You refer to "legitimacy" of texts. I am not questioning "legitimacy" in itself, but the purpose and nature of texts -- that is what we need to establish before we even know what they are evidence of, and how to use them in any enquiry. We don't know all the questions we can ask of them unless we know "what they are" and why they were written and when and for whom.

I don't mean they are of no historical value. We can treat them as products of a Mediterranean world and some sort of Christian matrix between 40 and 140 c.e. and compare their literary features with those of other texts we have a surer knowledge of, and that can inform us about the texts quite a bit. It can also enrich our understanding of ideas of the authors of the texts.

So the texts can in these ways be valuable data to explore and understand in any enquiry into the origins of Christianity. But the story of origins that emerges through this sort of enquiry (the sort that would be taken for granted in many nonbiblical histories) would very likely be quite different from the picture that is portrayed in the narratives of the texts themselves.

But that's how (nonbiblical) history works. You have to start with the evidence that you can understand and know -- in the sense of knowing where it comes from, its purpose and intent, its audience and author, etc. And then you have to sift the primary (if it exists) from the secondary evidence and make assessments about each. Sometimes the secondary may turn out to be more reliable than the primary -- but we will only know if we have some understanding of the provenance of both. Unsourced and unprovenanced evidence can be used, but only within the constraints described above.

But the funny thing about the studies of Christian origins is that we may not ever know when or if we are looking at primary evidence, if it even exists. But that's another (if related) story.
neilgodfrey is offline  
Old 12-21-2009, 07:44 AM   #198
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2004
Location: Dancing
Posts: 9,940
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by ApostateAbe View Post
I am going to have to strongly disagree with you there, and it may help you to read Misquoting Jesus: The Story Behind Who Changed the Bible and Why (or via: amazon.co.uk) by Bart D. Ehrman. It is all about how the canon was changed by copyists, and it is about the methods used to determine interpolation from the earliest writings of the author. Interpolations are a central theme of mainline Biblical scholarship, not an exception. If you have read the book, or if you are already familiar with the principles, then maybe I misunderstood, and it would help me if you were to explain further what you mean.
Erhman's book barely touches on Paul's letters; it's all about misquoting Jesus. As we all know, Paul never quotes Jesus so he's never going to misquote him . IIRC in that book Erhman only mentions 1 Timothy being pseudo-Pauline and one other possible interpolation in 1 Corinthians.
show_no_mercy is offline  
Old 12-21-2009, 11:33 AM   #199
Contributor
 
Join Date: Sep 2002
Location: MT
Posts: 10,656
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by neilgodfrey View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by ApostateAbe View Post

Would you at least take probability estimates for the provenance of texts as legitimate?

No, because "probability estimates" are not evidence substitutes. Probability estimates can be drawn from evidence in answers to questions we put to evidence, but cannot be used in place of evidence itself.

Where would one start to establish "probability estimates" for the authorship of any of the gospels?

You refer to "legitimacy" of texts. I am not questioning "legitimacy" in itself, but the purpose and nature of texts -- that is what we need to establish before we even know what they are evidence of, and how to use them in any enquiry. We don't know all the questions we can ask of them unless we know "what they are" and why they were written and when and for whom.

I don't mean they are of no historical value. We can treat them as products of a Mediterranean world and some sort of Christian matrix between 40 and 140 c.e. and compare their literary features with those of other texts we have a surer knowledge of, and that can inform us about the texts quite a bit. It can also enrich our understanding of ideas of the authors of the texts.

So the texts can in these ways be valuable data to explore and understand in any enquiry into the origins of Christianity. But the story of origins that emerges through this sort of enquiry (the sort that would be taken for granted in many nonbiblical histories) would very likely be quite different from the picture that is portrayed in the narratives of the texts themselves.

But that's how (nonbiblical) history works. You have to start with the evidence that you can understand and know -- in the sense of knowing where it comes from, its purpose and intent, its audience and author, etc. And then you have to sift the primary (if it exists) from the secondary evidence and make assessments about each. Sometimes the secondary may turn out to be more reliable than the primary -- but we will only know if we have some understanding of the provenance of both. Unsourced and unprovenanced evidence can be used, but only within the constraints described above.

But the funny thing about the studies of Christian origins is that we may not ever know when or if we are looking at primary evidence, if it even exists. But that's another (if related) story.
Thank you for the explanation, neilgodfrey. I appreciate it, because I think we really do need more information on the provenance of New Testament texts. The probability estimates for who originally wrote the text (which I think is all we really need to know to make educated guesses about the historical characters) is based on the contents of the text, on who is expected or not expected to say things. That is what Misquoting Jesus is about. Uncertain it may be. You said that some people of the time were good at faking authorship, and, if they were so good that they could fool modern critical scholars, then that would really throw a wrench into the system.
ApostateAbe is offline  
Old 12-21-2009, 11:36 AM   #200
Contributor
 
Join Date: Sep 2002
Location: MT
Posts: 10,656
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by show_no_mercy View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by ApostateAbe View Post
I am going to have to strongly disagree with you there, and it may help you to read Misquoting Jesus: The Story Behind Who Changed the Bible and Why (or via: amazon.co.uk) by Bart D. Ehrman. It is all about how the canon was changed by copyists, and it is about the methods used to determine interpolation from the earliest writings of the author. Interpolations are a central theme of mainline Biblical scholarship, not an exception. If you have read the book, or if you are already familiar with the principles, then maybe I misunderstood, and it would help me if you were to explain further what you mean.
Erhman's book barely touches on Paul's letters; it's all about misquoting Jesus. As we all know, Paul never quotes Jesus so he's never going to misquote him . IIRC in that book Erhman only mentions 1 Timothy being pseudo-Pauline and one other possible interpolation in 1 Corinthians.
Yeah, I think you are right about that. I think the book is a pretty good explanation of the principles, and an everyman reader can apply those same principles to make a judgment about Galatians 1:19.
ApostateAbe is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 08:14 AM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.