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#61 | |
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#62 | |
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The first verse actually reads: בְּרֵאשִׁית, בָּרָא אֱלֹהִים, אֵת הַשָּׁמַיִם, וְאֵת הָאָרֶץ or, transliterated, "Bereishit bara elohim et hashamayim v'et ha'aretz". No word "shamayimeretz" there at all. You seem to have made it up. |
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#63 |
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To be fair, I suppose that if you'd never seen the Hebrew of G1:1, and you'd looked up "heavens" and "earth" as independent words, and found "shamayim" and "'aretz", and then you rammed them together without any thought to the grammar, you could get "shamayimeretz".
Of course, you'd have to know nothing whatsoever about Hebrew - or indeed general scholarly practice - to do that. Actually scratch that "nothing whatsoever". I know nothing whatsoever about Hebrew, and to come up with "shamayimeretz" you'd have to know less than I do. |
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#66 | ||||
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Nevertheless, recognizing a progressive verb in Hebrew is easy. There's no past progressive tense in neither Biblical nor modern Hebrew, but the temporal flow of a past verb is clearly signified by: 1) Its aspect, either perfect or imperfect. In modern Hebrew, the imperfect aspect is the simple future tense. In Biblical Hebrew, it denotes progression. 2) Adverbs ("progressively", for instance) 3) Expressions such as "made as if to" 4) Unmistakable context. The most common past progressives in contemporary Hebrew are wholly implicit ("I <did/was doing>* something or other, when this really weird bird interrupted me"). None of the above are present in beReshit bara Elohim et all that jazz. The bara is a simple, perfect-aspect, 3rd person masculine singular verb, and I've yet to hear of any native speakers, religious or otherwise, scholarly or otherwise, interpreting it as anything else. I phoned up a linguist friend of mine (not a Biblical scholar, but she's pretty intimately acquainted with the nuances of ancient Hebrew), and she promptly dismissed the idea of the verb being anything other than what it appears to be. Quote:
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* In modern Hebrew, a gerund may substitute for the past perfect verb, but I know of no such instances anywhere in the Bible |
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#67 | ||
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1. Since Noah and his family were the only righteous people spared, that must mean that they were the only ones who spread out to populate the earth. Apparently the way to achieve righteousness in the eyes of God is to throw everything into a U-Haul and move out -- as opposed to the usual understanding of righteousness; 2. If the flood was sent to make people spread out, then it failed. God had to confuse the languages at Babel anyhow, in order to make people separate. IF confusion of languages was enough to do that, then why was the Flood necessary? I'm rapidly coming to the conclusion that you don't have a clue what you're talking about, and your previous claim: This, coupled with the fact that despite serious inquiry, I have not unconvered anything in genesis that cannot be true, was merely another creationist trying to prep his audience into thinking that he had solved all the hard problems. Your biblical interpretation isn't even airtight, much less your geology. |
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#68 | ||||||
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But what never seems to fail is exactly what we're seeing now: by the 2nd or 3rd post, the 'impartial christian' has already started repeating claims that have been shot down a thousand times. ![]() |
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#69 | ||||||
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