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Old 12-27-2005, 05:57 PM   #351
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Quite true. One of bfniii's favorite responses regarding the Bible is "why shouldn't I believe it"? Surely that argument will not convince anyone of his position. The problem for bfniii is that any Muslim can say "why shouldn't I believe the Koran"?
yes, i'm finding out that skeptics don't like to have their beliefs questioned.
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Old 12-27-2005, 06:09 PM   #352
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Default response to post #339

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Of course not,
then what are your doubts based on?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
nor can you list even one that was irrefutably supernaturalistic.
the key to that question is irrefutably. christians believe they are all true. what would be proof to you?



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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Since God deliberately hurts people, I will not accept him unless he explains himself to my satisfaction.
what gives you the impression that God deliberately hurts people?
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Old 12-28-2005, 09:24 AM   #353
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Default A simple invalidation of the Tyre prophecy

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
I am having trouble finding credible evidence that the prophecy was written before the events, and that it was not revised in later years. Perhaps you could point it out for me.
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
I was answering a question that was directed at me.

We can start by you answering the question I have asked which is what would be proof of such? So far, your answers have been less than compelling.
I have told you several times what my position is, but maybe you missed it, so here it is again. I am not aware of any way to reasonably prove or disprove that the propehcy was written before the events. If the prophecy was written before the events, I am not aware of any way to reasonably prove whether God told Ezekiel about Nebuchadnezzar's invasion plans or that Ezekiel learned about the invasion plans by ordinary means. I am not aware of any way to reasonably prove whether the version of the prophecy that we have today is the same as the original version.

I suspect that few if any people have ever become Christians solely because of the Tyre prophecy. I was a church-going, fundamentalist Christian for over 35 years, and I never heard of the Tyre prophecy until after I became a skeptic. In your opinion, can the Tyre prophecy stand on its own merit, or must it be associated with other scriptures that you believe are easier to reasonably prove in order to have merit.

Since this thread is about the Tyre prophecy, please transfer my following comments to the thread on Biblical errors and reply to them there. I would also like to know how much emphasis you put on personal spiritual/emotional and tangible experiences. We can also discuss that in the thread on Biblical errors.

If an honest, truth-seeking person starts to read the Bible for the first time, and if he doesn't have any preconceived notions one way or the other, what is the first evidence that he might find the would convince him to become a Christian.

You asked me for evidence that God hurts people, so here it is: Exodus 4:11 says "And the Lord said unto him, Who hath made man's mouth? or who maketh the dumb, or deaf, or the seeing, or the blind? have not I the Lord?"
If a human caused a person to become blind or deaf, he would be put in prison, and with your blessing I might add. If God wishes to show up and discuss this issue, I am more than willing discuss it with him. Maybe I would find his explanation to be acceptable, but maybe I wouldn't. I prefer to make fully informed decisions, most especially if heaven and hell are actually at stake.

You grossly misjudge skeptics. Many skeptics are loving, moral people, many of whom are more loving and moral than the typical Christian. There could not possible be any reasons why they would reject a loving God if they knew that he existed. I am not aware of any skeptic who is opposed to God or an alien being available to heal all of the sick people in the world. In addition, I am not aware of any skeptic who does not approve of human oversight. Without human oversight there would be anarchy. I am not aware of any skeptic would object to divine oversight if it is fair. The point is, what makes God's enforement of rules of his own choosing any more legitimate than any other powerful being enforcing rules of his own choosing?
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Old 12-29-2005, 09:36 AM   #354
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bfniii:
Quote:
Indeed. So now you understand why we are unimpressed by the failure of Christians to support their beliefs?

what failure?
Your own, for starters.

You have still not provided any reason to believe that the Bible is true, all you ever do is ask US to prove that it's false. And you have provided no explanation for your disbelief in the Koran.

This is insufficient.
Quote:
Young-Earthism,

how is this false? what are your responses to their beliefs?
It's false because the Earth is old. Learn some basic science, bfniii. And take it to the appropriate forum.
Quote:
special creation,

not sure what you mean by this.
Independent creation of species: denial of common descent.
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the Noachian Flood, Biblical inerrancy

how are these false?
There was no recent worldwide Flood. The Bible is in error.

...Why do you believe otherwise? Why should ANYONE believe what the Bible says?
Quote:
Some Christians also disbelieve in the resurrection of Jesus, which others consider to be the most important event in Christianity.

how could such a person be a christian?
At least one of them is a bishop, bfniii (the Bishop of Durham).

What's the problem here? Why is agreement among christians necessary regarding the resurrection? If a Christian believes that Jesus died for our sins, and is now in Heaven: why is it necessary to believe that he walked the Earth for a few weeks between the resurrection and the ascension?
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And God uses people to destroy cities (except Sodom and Gomorrah, but nothing like that happened to Tyre). Certainly, no other human conqueror is named, and no named being destroyed Tyre.

you say God uses people but then name an exception thus vitiating your qualification. another human conqueror does not need to be specifically named, "many nations" covers all the bases.
You are contradicting yourself. I asked you for a named person (other than Nebby) who would directly destroy Tyre. You claimed that God was that named person. But God never personally destroyed Tyre.
Quote:
Ah, I forgot: you believe that you can alter the meaning of Bible verses whenever it suits you.

i don't recall doing that. can you point out any examples so that i can clear them up?
Somewhat off-topic here, but there were several on the "Biblical errors" thread. Two that spring to mind: God "wanted" Adam and Eve to eat the Fruit (despite specifically prohibiting them from doing so), and "they shall be put to death" supposedly means "they shall NOT be put to death" (the human-sacrifice issue in Leviticus).

More relevant to this topic: the totally un-Biblical claim that the Tyre prophecy "isn't concerned with the physical city" (which ignores all the references to physical destruction).
Quote:
Yes it is.

no it's not.
MORE context-snipping! But we were discussing your claim that the Tyre prophecy "isn't concerned with the physical city".

So, all of your EVIDENCE that the Tyre prophecy "isn't concerned with the physical city" consists of the following:
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
no it's not.
...Another personal fantasy asserted as fact.

Do you understand WHY this is insufficient?
Quote:
As we're taking about Hebrew here, the answer is obvious. The Hebrew past tense refers to the past, and this rule was invented by the Hebrews (remember them? The folks who wrote the Bible?)

could you provide some support for this rule?

what verses would you be referring to?
Are you getting lost AGAIN?

Amazingly, you seem to be going back to questioning the notion that the "past tense" (in Ezekiel 29, written AFTER the siege of Tyre) refers to the PAST.

All languages consist of a set of rules. Abandon those, and you abandon the language. It seems that in your eagerness to disown what the Bible says, you wish to abandon the language in which it says it.

Some time ago, you claimed to be curious about why skeptics reject the Bible. But, quite apart from the obvious point that we have no reason to accept the Bible in the first place: why should WE accept what YOU have already rejected? It is abundantly clear that even YOU cannot defend what the Bible actually says on several issues: nor have you been able to provide any reason why your "re-interpretations" of the Bible should be given any credence.
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Old 12-29-2005, 05:49 PM   #355
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sad. no atheist posting here has been to tyre. if you actually go, you will in fact see fishermen spreading their nets on both the antiquity remnant of the mainland coastal city and the island coastal palace. Teams of archaeologists are currently excavating both the destroyed mainland part of the city and the destroyed palace on the island part. The prophecy was fulfilled literally. The omission of alexander changes nothing,m except that it helps prove that the original prophecy was made in advance. Both are bare rocks on what once was a city-state empire that rivaled the power of Great Britain at its prime, the foremost sea power in the mediterranean. The nearby town of "sur" is not tyre and it is not phoenician and it is not a city-state, it has about 15,000 people and it has no navy, not even a coast guard. How did Ezekiel know that fishermen would be spreading their nets on both parts? That would be the same as a prophet in the 1800's saying that fishermen would be spreading their nets on the ruins of buckingham palace near the Themes river.
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Old 12-30-2005, 01:27 AM   #356
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Default A simple invalidation of the Tyre prophecy

Quote:
Originally Posted by mata leao
Sad. No atheist posting here has been to Tyre. If you actually go, you will in fact see fishermen spreading their nets on both the antiquity remnant of the mainland coastal city and the island coastal palace. Teams of archaeologists are currently excavating both the destroyed mainland part of the city and the destroyed palace on the island part. The prophecy was fulfilled literally.
What makes you think that it was a prophecy? Why couldn't Ezekiel hav learned about Nebuchadnezzar's invasion by ordinary means. The invasion was a major undertaking. It would have taken months to plan, and hundreds if not thousands of people would have known about it. Considering Nebuchadnezzar's great power, his proven penchant for conquest, the riches of Tyre, and Babylon's close proximity to Tyre, how is at all surprising that he attacked Tyre? I mean really, Mata leao, anyone at any time during human history could have predicted the eventual overthrow of any kingdom, and the the odds are that eventually they would have been right. Historically, kingdoms rising and falling has been the exception, not the rule.

Quote:
Originally Posted by mata leao
The omission of Alexander changes nothing, except that it helps prove that the original prophecy was made in advance. Both are bare rocks on what once was a city-state empire that rivaled the power of Great Britain at its prime, the foremost sea power in the Mediterranean.
But you cannot realiably determine what "bare" means. Ezekiel might have meant relatively bare, or completly bare. The NIV and the NASB use the word "bare". The mainland settlement and the island settlement were built on rocky ground. Smaller pieces of rock and debris from the mainland settlement would not have been suitable for building the bridge to the island. Hence, there is no way that the mainland settlement could have been completely bare. In addition, the bridge might have been completed without the need for using all of the rocks and all of debris from the mainland settlement. In order to make a credible argument, you would need to have information regarding approximately how many cubic yards of natural rock there was in the mainland settlement, and how many cubic yards of rock that it took to build the mainland settlement. Of course, you don't have any of this necessary information.

Quote:
Originally Posted by mata leao
The nearby town of "sur" is not Tyre and it is not phoenician and it is not a city-state, it has about 15,000 people and it has no navy, not even a coast guard. How did Ezekiel know that fishermen would be spreading their nets on both parts? That would be the same as a prophet in the 1800's saying that fishermen would be spreading their nets on the ruins of buckingham palace near the Themes river.
Where do you get "both parts" from? Ezekiel 26:5 says "It shall be a place for the spreading of nets in the midst of the sea: for I have spoken it, saith the Lord GOD: and it shall become a spoil to the nations." "In the midst of the sea" refers to the island settement. The mainland settlement was not in the midst of the sea. Oceanographers will tell us that historically, it has not been at all unusal for small islands and islets to become partially or completely covered with water. Fishing nets were not doubt spread on the island long before Alexander's attack.

After Nebuchadnezzar's failed attempts to conquer the mainland settlement, in spite of the fact that Ezekiel called him "a king of kings," and in spite of the fact that the prophecy said that his army would go down "all" of the streets of Tyre, which we know from historical records "did not" happen, the city was rebuilt on a number of occasions. Consider the following from http://www.middleeast.com/tyre.htm:

"The Romans built great important monuments in the city, including an aqueduct, a triumphal arch and the largest hippodrome in antiquity.

"Christianity figures in the history of Tyre, whose name is mentioned in the new testament. During the Byzantine era, the Archbishop of Tyre was the primate of all the bishops of Phoenicia.

"At this time the town witnessed a second golden age as can be seen from the remains of its buildings and the inscriptions in the necropolis. Taken by the Islamic armies in 634, the city offered no resistance and continued to prosper under its new rulers, exporting sugar as well as objects made of pearl and glass.

"With the decline of the Abbasid caliphate, Tyre acquired some independence under the dynasty of Banu 'Aqil, vassals of the Egyptian Fatimides. This was a time when Tyre was adorned with fountains and its bazaars were full of all kinds of merchandise, including carpets and jewerly of gold and silver.

"Thanks to Tyre's strong fortifications it was able to resist to onslaught of the Crusaders until 1124. After about 180 years of Crusader rule, the Mamlukes retook the city in 1291, then it passed on to the Ottomans at the start of the 16th century.

"With the end of the World War I Tyre was integrated into the new nation of Lebanon."

Your knowledge of ancient history is obviously grossly inadequate, mata leao.

Today, the U.S. has adopted a policy of limiting civilian casualties during times of war as much as possible, but the God of the Bible wasn't like that, and he went out of his way to kill innocent babies in Tyre and Sodom and Gomorrah, and he killed all of the first born males in Egypt.

Ezekiel 28:6-8 say "Therefore thus saith the Lord GOD; Because thou hast set thine heart as the heart of God; Behold, therefore I will bring strangers upon thee, the terrible of the nations: and they shall draw their swords against the beauty of thy wisdom, and they shall defile thy brightness.
They shall bring thee down to the pit, and thou shalt die the deaths of them that are slain in the midst of the seas." We know for a fact that many Tyrians did not die over a number of centuries.

The notion of an all-powerful God and his human proxies taking centuries to get even with a bunch of puny humans is patently absurd. It is interesting to note that the conquerers were no less deserving of being defeated than were the conquerees (the Tyrians).

Since Deuteronomy 13 says that bad people can predict the future too, it is not a question of who can predict the future, but of who has good character. I submit that the God of the Bible does not have good character, and that at best, he is bi-polar. Exodus 4:11 says "And the Lord said unto him, Who hath made man's mouth? or who maketh the dumb, or deaf, or the seeing, or the blind? have not I the Lord?" Mata leao, if a human caused people to become blind and deaf, he would be sent to prison, and with your approval I might add.

It is interesting to note that when Alexander conquered the island settlement, the Tyrians who had been alive when Ezekiel supposedly made the prophecy had been dead for centuries.
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Old 12-30-2005, 03:49 PM   #357
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it cant get any simpler than this....tyre will be destroyed and fishermen will use its ruins to spread their fishnets on...... Q.E.D.
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Old 12-30-2005, 11:24 PM   #358
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Default A simple invalidation of the Tyre prophecy

Quote:
Originally Posted by mata leao
It can't get any simpler than this....Tyre will be destroyed and fishermen will use its ruins to spread their fishnets on...... Q.E.D.
Fishnets were spread on Tyre before and after it was defeated. In addition, as I showed in my previous post, it experienced a second golden age and was reinhabited and rebuilt on a number of occasions. Further, historically, kingdoms rising and falling has been the rule, not the except. In other words, anyone could have predicted that a given kingdom would have fallen, and the odds are that that would eventually have happened. It was not at all unusual that Nebuchadnezzar attacked Tyre, and Ezekiel could easily have learned about his invasion plans by ordinary means. In my previous post, I easily refuted your absurd argument about Tyre becoming like a bare rock. Any competent historian would laugh at you if you presented that rubbish to him. I also told you that oceanographers will tell us that historically, it has not at all been uncommon for small islands or islets to become partially or completely submerged underwater. And of course, since Deuteronomy 13 says that bad people can predict the future too, it is not a question of who can predict the future, but of who has good character. I submit that the God of the Bible does not have good character. Would you care to debate that issue in a new thread? I sure hope so, but I predict that you won't.
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Old 12-31-2005, 07:05 AM   #359
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Default response to post #340

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
I was referring to the inability of CHRISTIANS to provide "specifics": actual instances of "supernatural knowledge" or "divine inspiration" in the Bible.
not at first, you weren't. in post #278, you mentioned an "ongoing inability" of christians to justify their beliefs. i am asking you for specifics. name some examples of beliefs that christians have that they are unable to justify.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Now, you appear to be agreeing with me: none can be provided.
that's not true at all. you show some examples and i'll be glad to explain the christian position to you.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Extra-Biblical support would be good.
garbage. whenever a non-biblical source corroborates biblical accounts, skeptics claim it was later redacted by christian interpolation. extra-biblical support can be helpful, but it's not conclusive. therefore, your requirement is flawed. what else would be proof to you?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
But we are under no obligation to "prove" that the prophecy WAS written before the event: this has been pointed out already.
i'm not asking you to prove it. i'm asking you to provide a template and then christians would then have to fulfill that request. so far, the only template you have provided, extra-biblical support, is flawed. do you have any others?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
They are "convinced" by blind faith,
not entirely



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
whereas my own beliefs are based on the available evidence,
you wish. what "evidence" would that be?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
and on (genuine) scholarly opinion from (genuine) experts.
what a laugh. why is it that there are other educated people who have access to the same scholarship that you do, who remain christian? i know professors at a secular university that are christian. there's no way you can make the case that they are unaware of scholarship that is objectionable to christianity. the truth is that they are unconvinced by the objections. so i am asking you, or anyone else, why should someone be convinced that the tyre prophecy wasn't fulfilled.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
This referred to your false assertion that the Flood could be dated "anywhere from 2000bc to 10000bc" (the Bible says otherwise, as I pointed out).
no it does not. i invited you to research the issue, but you declined opting instead to stick with your unfounded assertion.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You then clammed up,
oh yeah? where was that?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
and refused to post on the thread that was set up to discuss this: Alternative Biblical dates for the Flood?
but you conveniently left out the part where i stated why such a discussion is interesting, but inconlusive at this point.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Post #323 was made AFTER I placed you on "ignore",
big whoop



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
therefore it was invisible to me
you decide to play a childish game and that is my fault? besides, i still responded to the point.



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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
(do you understand how the "ignore" function works?).
no and i don't really care. you are the only person i know who has invoked it.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
But, as usual, your "reasons" were bogus anyhow (and this COULD still be discussed, IF you ever actually SHOW UP on the Flood thread).
you still don't get it, do you? the whole thread could be avoided. i did skim the thread. it's great discussion, it's interesting speculation. but none of it disproves the biblical account, as i have stated. i am more interested in other issues, as you can plainly see.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Another "my position is supported by scolarship" bluff. I am well aware of the relevant issues. YOU are the one who refuses to fully debate them.
first, i pointed out a specific source regarding the egyptian miracles (a good one at that). but you are accusing me of not "fully" debating them (whatever the heck that means). second, i am the one between the two of us who is pointing out that there is information lacking regarding the discussions of the flood. that would seem to implicate that you are the one who is not "fully" debating the issue. again, did you study the issue further? did you try to more accurately represent the christian position on the issue? no to both questions.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You ongoing failure to provide examples, for starters. And YOUR inability to explain how someone could determine if the bible is authoritative, and YOUR inability to explain why you think it IS trustworthy, accurate or dependable...
so you don't have an answer for the question. that's all you had to say.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Muslims say "there is no God but Allah, and Mohammed is his Prophet". So, please explain why you have not abandoned Christianity because of this.
why should a christianity abandon their beliefs for that? explain why it's convincing.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
So you're not aware of which threads your posts go to?
i am aware of that, but i'm not aware of any failure to respond to points directed at me. that's why i am asking you to point them out so i can clear them up. if i have skipped over any, i will be glad to respond.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Nope, that's the thread we have already discussed: the one in which you couldn't find any "problems" with the critical view, and hoped that Spin would do it for you.
in post #21, i touched on one. i am prepared to discuss others.

i have a question. why haven't any of spin's claque taken up the torch for him? i'm ready to continue the discussion in that thread at any time. it should be so easy to trounce me on the subject, but no one has attempted.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Nope, that's the "Biblical errors" thread, in which you were unable to fit your explanations into the Biblical narrative (as explained on that thread).
and what post numbers would these "explanations" appear in?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
I did this repeatedly on the "Biblical errors" thread, and you repeatedly evaded. I see no reason to bring up all those issues again on THIS thread (where they don't belong), and I have no illusions about your willingness to finally address them on THAT thread either.
do you ever notice how i point to specific post numbers and i let readers decide for themselves whereas you make general, vague, mistakenly triumphant assertions that you don't support with specifics? just curious.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You are merely demonstrating that you are STILL lost. The issue here is YOUR claim: the false claim that the musical instruments were evidence of an EARLY date for Daniel (i.e. they could NOT have been mentioned in the book if it was written LATER, for some unexplained reason).
so you are unable to show that the instruments could not possibly have been there any earlier. that's all you had to say.

where is the evidence that they appeared later as opposed to earlier?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
I have not ADDRESSED the claim that the instruments are evidence of a LATE authorship, except to mention it in passing and to point out that you have misremembered it. Scholars are of the opinion that these instruments were introduced into the region as a result of Alexander's conquest of it.
not all scholars are of that opinion. i mentioned one who thinks otherwise to sauron.



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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
This sounds perfectly reasonable to me,
good for you. why should i agree with you?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
and I am certainly not qualified to state otherwise (and neither are you): I am not an expert on these matters (and neither are you). But I am not aware of any evidence to the contrary (and, apparently, neither are you).
pity. and i went to all that trouble to introduce just what you are saying you are unaware of. sauron railed on and on about the same thing and i eventually introduced just such information after i showed that he was unaware of it.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Incidentally, while we're still on the subject of Daniel: you don't seem to understand what a "problem" would look like. A "problem" with either view would be a fact which appears to CONTRADICT that view. There are several such "problems" with the traditional view of Daniel
and those would be? (i don't care if you answer this question here or in the daniel thread)



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
(already discussed):
and countered



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
however, even if you COULD resolve EVERY such "problem" in the traditional view, this would NOT itself be a problem for the CRITICAL view. Apologists really need to find evidence which CONTRADICTS the notion that Daniel was written in the Maccabean period
as i have said all along, the critical position is not without flaws.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
(Ezekiel's reference to "Dan'el" was one attempt to do this: it failed because Ezekiel was plainly not referring to a contemporary, Dan'el is an ancient hero in older Ugaritic texts).
that's definitely debatable.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Educate yourself. SAB: Science and History in the Bible
ah, the good old skeptic's annotated bible. that pantheon of biblical interpretation. let's just take the genesis entries for now. we can address the others and errancywiki later.

the author fails to show that numbers 1, 4, 15, 16, 28, 29 are impossible for an omnipotent God.

numbers 3, 5, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 18, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 31, 35, 39, 41, 42 and 43 don't really make a point. they just restate what the verse says.

number 2 is based on the hidden assumption that morning is dependent on light as opposed to a measure of time or that it is going to eventually be dependent on light.

number 6 is based on the hidden assumption that only astrologers benefit from the stars.

the first question in number 7 is semantics. the second question is irrelevant. it is still the brightest source of light at night.

i don't follow number 13.

number 14 operates on the hidden assumption that there can be no good purpose of suffering.

number 17 operates from the hidden assumption that the bible claims that there were the same number of species then as there are now. no such statement is made.

the second question of number 19 mistakenly tries to imply that the bible literally meant snakes would eat dust. the bible is referring to their proximity to the ground. given that, it is unreasonable to think that they never get dust in their mouth.

the author unfortunately doesn't list the verse that point number 20 is drawn from. there are no such verses.

number 21 is argument from silence.

number 20 implies that the bible doesn't allow for any time to elapse between verses 19 and 20.

the author fails to mention in number 32 that one of meanings of "arwm" is reverence. this implies that every animal on earth is capable of being subdued or destroyed by man, but the reverse is not true. in other words, man has dominion over the earth.

number 33 assumes that all bible believers use that verse to be cruel; that all christians are cruel to animals; that the bible condones it, which it doesn't.

number 34 is just plain stupid. just because rainbows existed before

humans doesn't mean that God didn't create them.

number 36 assumes that that bible verse is referring to 2400bc

number 37 mistakenly assumes that God is concerned about the tower reaching heaven.

the author is unable to prove number 38.

number 40 assumes that just because the philistines hadn't arrived in that place at the time the verse refers to, that the author can't retroactively refer to the land in that way.

educate myself indeed. jack, please tell me this isn't a source that you rely on for biblical interpretation. <ad hominem and inflammatory remark deleted>



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
An even more extreme example of context-snipping!
in all your whining about this, you haven't once shown that the "snipping" changed the context of what you were saying.

i'm just playing the same game you are. in case you haven't caught on to this, you tend to make statements that are debatable, but pass them off as certain instead of just making your case and letting everyone decide for themselves what to believe.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
If you insist that it DOESN'T: then I can be pretty sure that it DOES. Whatever it is...
you said the bible makes the case for YEC and only YEC. i am asking you to explain where OEC get their ideas from if not from the bible or show that the bible contradicts OEC.



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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
It amazes me that you still think you can get away with the "secret knowledge" bluff.
secret? it's not secret. it's just secret to you (and spin).



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Your inability to competently discuss Daniel was painfully evident on that thread:
your assessment of that thread is hilarious. this is another one of your impotent, vague charges. why don't you point out specifically what inabilities occurred there?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
as is your ongoing inability to find any "problems" with the critical position.
i have already cited the exact post where i merely touched on one such problem. there are others and i'll be glad to discuss them. i just want to make sure we're clear that you are unaware of them, as was spin. how can you consider your position on the matter thorough if your position can't even address the strengths and weaknesses of alternate views?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Nothing is stopping YOU from going back to that thread and actually doing what you have failed to do thus far: to actually POST this list of supposed "problems" with the critical position, the list that "of course" exists (I think you already know how quickly such a list would be shredded).
hmm. the one i pointed out already has yet to be "shredded" by spin or any of his claque (that includes you). what's even funnier is that you make it out like i'm the one actually doing something wrong. from the beginning of that thread i have merely stated that there are three major views and there are christians in each group. i asked spin why his view was the only true one and he was woefully unable to do so. if you disagree, then you are welcome to pick up the torch for him either here or over there.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You have managed to snip off the context AGAIN. We were discussing the claim that the main purpose of a Biblical prophet was to predict the future.
the clip didn't change the context, jack. my statement is correct. if you disagree, make your case.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Pat Robertson is a good modern example of a Biblical prophet.
he is? that's news to me.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
It has certainly come up in THIS thread (and I see that you have quietly dropped your claim that Ezekiel could have been "prophesying" in the past tense).
what in the world are you talking about? i haven't dropped anything. i stated my case regarding that issue. i'll do so again. let's start with this: what do you mean by "past tense" (in the original hebrew, or course)?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
On the "Biblical errors" thread, it came up in post #188.
i'm reading that post and i don't see any mention of past tense. could you clarify?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Also, because we know that the book was not completed until AFTER the siege of Tyre:
even if you are correct on this point (you certainly haven't shown any support for it), that doesn't mean that the prophecy wasn't common knowledge prior to the completion of the book.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
the only indication we have that the ENTIRE "prophecy" wasn't written after the event is the fact that it failed!
first, the prophecy as written didn't fail. if you think it did, state your reasons. second, that is flawed logic. the prophecy could possibly be successful even if written prior to the event.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Because they have failed to demonstrate that any reasonably "unpredictable" event was indeed successfully prophesied.
first, you use the qualifier "reasonably" which makes your entire statement subjective. second, every event has a degree of uncertainty that escapes prediction. there is no way for anyone to know for certain that something would have prevented nebuchadnezzar from attacking tyre; natural disaster, attack from another nation, famine/plague, etc. third, there are degrees of specificity regarding any prophecy. because of that, prophecies don't have to be relegated to events that are "unpredictable". they merely need to be specific enough regarding any event as to make the prophecy efficacious. besides, who is going to be able to qualify events as unpredictable?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
What a bizarre request! Yet again you've missed the point: that I am asking YOU to list even even one that is irrefutably NOT naturalistic or just plain lucky! Heck, even "probably not naturalistic or just plain lucky" would be a start......But preferably on the appropriate thread.
and i have responded by asking you what would be proof to you that any of the biblical prophecies have been fulfilled.

i sure would like to see you prove that an alleged prophecy was a good guess.

btw, i realize it must be a bizarre request for someone to ask that you support your beliefs.
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Old 12-31-2005, 07:08 AM   #360
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Default response to post #341

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
And I have directly answered your questions, but you have never provided any credible evidence at all that the prophecy was written before the events and that the version of the prophecy is the same as the original version.
untrue. i have stated a case and i have even asked you what would be proof to you. so far, your responses have been either irrelevant or impossible.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
My current position is that both sides have equally valid arguments. What is your position?
you know what my position is. the traditional position is that it was written prior, so someone got the idea somehow. my question to you is why is that notion wrong. your position is non-committal so you aren't really relevant to the discussion.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Even if the prophecy was written before the events, Ezekiel could easily have learned about Nebuchadnezzar's invasion months in advance by ordinary means.
which, of course, in no way guarantees he would have attacked tyre. i just mentioned several things that were out of ezekiel's control that could have prevented nebuchadnezzar doing so. these things certainly weren't unknown to people during that time.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
The invasion was a major undertaking, and hundreds, if not thousands of people would have known about it. Due to Nebuchadnezzar's great power, his proven penchant for conquest, the riches of Tyre, and Babylon's close proximity to Babylon, it would have been surprising if he had not attacked Tyre.
you fail to mention that tyre was no pushover. nebuchadnezzar had to know this. it wouldn't have been anything like attacking the little sisters of the poor. you're assuming that ezekiel made the prophecy after nebuchadnezzar started planning which is certainly something you aren't able to prove.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
There is no possible proof that I am aware of. Do you know of any? We can rest assured that there is no possible proof that the version of the prophecy that we have today is the same as the original version, and that the prophecy was divinely inspired even if it was written before the events.
that depends on your definition of proof. some people have all the proof they need.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
It seems as if you are conveniently ignoring my posts. If so, that is fine with me, and I will interpret that as an indication that you know that you are not able to effectively deal with my posts. It is rude for you not to reply to a person's posts without any notice whatsoever.
johnny, what in the world are you talking about? i can cite post numbers where i have responded to your each and every point directed at me. can you name one post number prior to this one, #341, that i didn't respond to? if so, i will be glad to respond. if not, why do you even bother typing garbage like this?



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
You didn't even reply to my private message, and that is rude too. Other than you, I have never encountered a Christian who refused to reply to a private message. At any rate, I will continue to reply to your posts even though you won't reply to my posts.
i haven't gotten to it yet. i try to respond in an orderly fasion, chronologically that is, and it hasn't come up yet. it is rude for you to make false accusations or be impatient.
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