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Old 08-26-2005, 12:28 AM   #51
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Default The Question That Would Not Die!!!

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Originally Posted by Vorkosigan
I suggest you rethink the reference to "popular biography." It's a non-historical genre written for instruction and entertainment.
I asked this in another thread but I continue to be interested in your answer so I'm asking it again:

Do you consider Mark to have been primarily an instructional text? A sort of interactive primer on the author's Christian beliefs?
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Old 08-26-2005, 06:46 AM   #52
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Originally Posted by Haran
Vork, did you get this from a specific source that you can name, or is it simply a mistake? P45 breaks off before Mary, so it cannot be definitely said that "Son of Mary" is not found there. In fact, it appears likely by the text and spacing that does exist in the papyrus that the phrase was there.
Yes! Ha! I misread the source. My bad. Mea culpa, mea culpa...mea maxima culpa. I really, really need to learn Greek and stop being at the mercy of sources. Even when they are not wrong I still misread them. *sigh*

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Old 08-26-2005, 06:52 AM   #53
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
I asked this in another thread but I continue to be interested in your answer so I'm asking it again:

Do you consider Mark to have been primarily an instructional text? A sort of interactive primer on the author's Christian beliefs?
I can't tell anymore. Scholars are divided on whether the Greek novels had didactic functions or were merely for entertainment. I am skeptical that Mark was put together just for entertainment, rather a lot of work went into it, and it seems to have a clear lesson about faith. Mark is not a Greek novel, but rather, a recruiting text written with the conventions of Greek novels, much like _Left Behind_ is a Dispensationalist tract written as a popular thriller.
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Old 08-26-2005, 05:34 PM   #54
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Originally Posted by darstec
And remember he had to have gotten away with it twice, once at the beginning of his ministry and again at the end. Not only were there Roman Temple guards, most likely Jewish, it is doubtful any wealthy moneychanger/banker would be carrying large amounts of money without a number of their own personal guards.
The first temple disruption scene is probably unhistorical. It is more likely that he preached for awhile, and they left him alone. At Passover he started insulting the high priests, and at least attempted to vandalize the temple. Whether or not he was able to, he would have still been punished for it.

I just can't see how a non-existant person can get a cult following by 20 years after his death (in the case of Paul's letters, which begin around 50 CE). If the earliest layers of Q were used by Paul in his letters (as some scholars suggest), that would mean the early versions of Q were written at least a year beforehand (long enough to circulate among early Christian communities- note that this refers to the early editions of Q, the final edition, used by "Matthew" and "Luke," is probably later).
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Old 08-26-2005, 10:39 PM   #55
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I just can't see how a non-existant person can get a cult following by 20 years after his death...
How did you determine exactly when this non-existent person died?

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If the earliest layers of Q were used by Paul in his letters (as some scholars suggest)...
What scholars suggest this? It seems ridiculously without merit.
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