FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Yesterday at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 03-28-2007, 12:15 PM   #171
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Mar 2007
Location: 36078
Posts: 849
Default

Hex, there's nothing in the Time article to support Lars' claim about Kenyon. Here's that pertinent section from ARE THE BIBLE'S STORIES TRUE?:

Unlike the Exodus, the story of Joshua and the conquest of Canaan can be tested against a rich archaeological record. The scientific consensus: bad news for the biblical account. According to the Book of Joshua, the Israelite leader and his armies swept into Canaan, destroying cities including Jericho, Hazor and Ai, after which the Israelites settled the land.

Archaeology tells a more complicated tale. Historians generally agree that Joshua's conquest would have taken place in the 13th century B.C. But British researcher Kathleen Kenyon, who excavated at Jericho for six years, found no evidence of destruction at that time. Indeed, says Dead Sea Scrolls curator emeritus Broshi, "the city was deserted from the beginning of the 15th century until the 11th century B.C." So was Ai, say Broshi and others. And so, according to archaeological surveys, was most of the land surrounding the cities. Says Broshi: "The central hill regions of Judea and Samaria were practically uninhabited. The Israelites didn't have to kill and burn to settle."
- http://www.time.com/time/magazine/ar...3854-7,00.html
Cege is offline  
Old 03-28-2007, 02:04 PM   #172
New Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2006
Location: Oaxaca, Mexico
Posts: 4
Default

Joining this discussion after seven pages, I notice that while Lars is, shall we say, exceedingly voluble about various abstruse or imaginary details of carbon dating, mummy's toes, and so on, he has never bothered to reply to various posters who point out the obvious impossibilities the supposed exodus describes. Lessee now: he mentions "a million or so" escaped Israelites wandering around the desert. Since the number of men who "were able to go forth to war" is specified in Numbers as 603,550 this makes for some peculiar demographics. Normally a society will have roughly equal numbers of adult males and females, so already we have 1,200,000. Add in the oldsters- surely at least one father/mother/aunt per couple and we're at 1,800,000.
When we get to the children things get a little confusing: Deut. x says that there were only 70 original people who went down into Egypt, and Gen. 15 that there were four generations between the going down and the exodus, so assuming that all the men found wives somehow in Egypt, each mother must have had about twentynine children (Gen 1:70, gen 2: 2030 , gen 3: 58,870, gen 4: 1,700,00.) But maybe they stopped at gen 4 and only had two kids each, that still gives us around three million, not counting the mixed multitude and the Levites and so on. And we're supposed to believe that this entire throng, old ladies, pregnant women, the sick and injured, five-year-old kids, plus several million animals ("Not an hoof was left behind") assembled at Rameses on a few hours notice and then ran, at the speed of a good midpack ultramarathoner, the 35 miles or so (my Biblical Atlas doesn't give the exact distance, but that's what it measures at) to Succoth, without food or water, all in one day.
Lars mentions several times that they lived in tents. Where did they get them? A WW2 USArmy six man tent weighs about 110 pounds; they needed half a million tents. I suppose they encountered Omar the Tent Maker in the desert and he happened to have a stock of 27,500 tons of tent making material on hand? Not to mention the wood for tentposts and so on.
The water problem has already been mentioned. Lars has ignored it. I'll add that not only did they need drinking water for the throng and their beasts, they were forever supposed to be washing their clothes for ritual purposes.
As for the unmummified bodies decaying completely: this is the Sinai desert we're talking about. I've never been there, but I've been to the Atacama where you can dig up dried lizards and birds that are four thousand years old, not to mention a lot of human remains. Since all the original three million were supposed to die, that means there were around 200 deaths (and births) per day, which also leads to the problem of where all the sacrificed cattle and doves and so on that they needed to purify themselves after touching a dead body or an "unclean" woman came from. And how Aaron and his sons were supposed to kill and eat maybe six hundred cows a day, (anybody else who tried to perform any priestly jobs was apparently zapped by YHWH) and carry the remains outside the camp to burn (a distance of maybe ten kilometers).
And so on. Try here: http://www.indiana.edu/~arch/saa/mat...saa_mod04.html for a lot more.
dpiperoax is offline  
Old 03-28-2007, 02:08 PM   #173
New Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2006
Location: Oaxaca, Mexico
Posts: 4
Default

Sorry, wrong reference: http://www.infidels.org/library/hist...hapter_04.html
dpiperoax is offline  
Old 03-28-2007, 02:10 PM   #174
Hex
Regular Member
 
Join Date: Jan 2001
Location: www.rationalpagans.com
Posts: 445
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
Starting here: Even Archaeoastronomers can not conclusively link Egyptian dynasties with celestial occurances with certainty. If you are looking at the 1375 BC eclipse, be wary. As noted in Sawer and Stephenson 1970 ("Literary and Astronomical Evidence for a Total Eclipse of the Sun Observed in Ancient Ugarit on 3 May 1375 B. C.", by J. F. A. Sawyer; F. R. Stephenson, Bulletin of the School of Oriental and African Studies, University of London © 1970), this should be noted that the date of the Ugritic recording of the eclipse may have actually come from 1365 BC instead. Also, due to the lack of other Ugritic astronomical infromation, there is the possibility that the 'eclipse' was actually due to a dust-storm and -not- a celestial event at all.
Matters not. Rohl wanted to apply this to year 12 of Akhenaten. If it is purely circumstantial, then ignore it. But if you apply Egyptian influence, where "B++" is simply a reference to "sixth hour" then only 1375BCE can be considered here. The text was charred and a fire in the palace was reported to Akhenaten. That's the very loose and circumstantial connection. Since it's the only "liver reading/eclipse" text found, it's reasonable to presume it had only current interest and was not an astronomical text reference that might have been filed in an archive. If that's the case, then the fire explains not only its uniqueness but its preservation. That being said, we can presume that the eclipse dates the fire. So some fire happened in 1375BCE. If this was the same fire reported to Akhenaten, which it could have been, then some scenario in relation to the reign of Akhenaten's 18-year rule would have to include a 1375BCE dating. Rohl's choice based on whatevere was to date this to year 12. I suppose any year would do but just taking the popular dating that would date the 1st of Akhenaten to 1386BCE. That date is simply compared to other dating, such as Kenyon's dating for the fall of Jericho in 1350-1325BCE with fits this general period.
While this tablet is important – perhaps the first record of an eclipse that we have, it is unlikely that it ‘had only current interest interest and was not an astronomical text reference that might have been filed in an archive’. “Since it's the only "liver reading/eclipse" text found, it's reasonable to presume it had only current interest and was not an astronomical text reference that might have been filed in an archive.” A liver reading. Doesn’t that sound, oh, Babylonian? Heptascopy was big with them in terms of getting messages from beyond. In the context of Mesopotamian oracles, the mix of haruspicy and astronomy is common.
Quote:
Bmong the numerous astrological texts from seventhcentury B.C. Assyria, which certainly follow ancient Sumerian and Babylonian methods and terminology, there is one in which an astrologer explains to his monarch the methods he employs to interpret an eclipse of the moon : significant factors are the date, the time of day, the nature of the eclipse (position and direction of the shadow on the moon's surface), and the position of the planets (Sawyer & Stephenson, 1970) .
It’s just not well documented in Ugarit. Such portents as what has been understood from the tablet state:

Quote:
' The day of the new moon in the month of Hiyar was put to shame. The Sun went down (in the day-time) with Mars in attendance. (This means that) the overlord will be attacked by his vassals.' (Sawyer & Stephenson, 1970)
Now … What’s the big deal here?

That 1375BCE date. We can run the astronomical data backward and forward to ‘prove’ an eclipse. As we’ve learned, ‘we have the technology’.

But, the thing to note, the thing I meant to get across, is that not –all- historical descriptions of eclipses are of celestial origin.

Quote:
In the Chin shu, or history of the Chin dynasty in China we find (A.D. 308) :
' Yellow and dark vapours concealed the sun and gave a yellow colour to objects the light fell on . . . . This was a solar veiling. It is said that all solar eclipses occur on the first or the last day of the lunar month. Those appearing on neither the first nor the last day are known as veilings of the sun. A very similar description comes from Spain in A.D. 770. A survey of the solar eclipses near A.D. 308 and 770 proves, as the records state, that eclipses were not responsible for the obscuration of the sun. In both cases the cause must have been atmospheric.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
As such then, I'd like to hold back on making this a firm part of the arguemnt so far. As much as there is literary evidence, it is hardly firm.
That's fine. This is totally circumstantial anyway, but as long as you know that this text, IF applied occurs in 1375BCE. That's the only eclipse that occurs between 5-6 a.m.
And that’s only if you take that translation …


Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
I would like to point out that Manetho is dealing with time periods of history easily 600 years older than himself. Syncellus was 1600 years or more removed from such events. And they were working off of older records. Now, the fact that Manetho's work really only exists through Josephus, and Syncellus was basically working off of other histories, some of which had been, shall we say, embelished. Thus again, as -fact- we have to be suspect of this too.
Not significant because Egyptologists use Manetho to establish the dating for the dynasties. You want to throw out Manetho as a total hoax. Be my guest. But Egyptologists will have little critical references for any timeline they use. Thus the critical reference for Manetho is that he is the reference used by Egyptologists. I'm only referencing him after the fact. If there is a superior reference, then fine. But you can't establish a critical timeline used by Egyptologists based on Manetho and then decide not to use him as a valid reference after the fact. Thus regardless of when he occurs, he becomes "relevant" because of Egyptologist use and endorsement more than anything else.
I’m not saying that they’re total hoaxes, just that they –were not- first-person reporters. They could have got some things wrong, even as much as they had intentions of being as truthful as possible. As such, they should be used to back up the –physical- information, not as a primary source, right?


Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
One might note that Kenyon noted that the walls of Jericho had collapsed and been rebuilt several times (Excavations at Jericho, by Kathleen M. Kenyon
The Journal of the Royal Anthropological Institute of Great Britain and Ireland © 1954). Also, during her tenure in the Middle-East doing archaeology, C-14 dating was no-where near as accurate as it is now and her excavations at Jericho ended in 1958. She was interested in the Natufian stuff, origins of civilization - in the range of 9200-6000 BC - not Biblical matters. This is all nicely summarized and explained in Bar-Yosef's article (The Walls of Jericho: An Alternative Interpretation, by O. Bar-Yosef, Current Anthropology © 1986), which also point out that, dating aside, it appears that the walls of Jericho were not for defense from human (or supernatural) enemies, but from flood waters.
Interesting information, thanks!!!
No problem. It’s one of the benefits of doing research, you find out really cool things.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
Or, did you mean Garstang's 1941 ("The Story of Jericho: Further Light on the Biblical Narrative", John Garstang, The American Journal of Semitic Languages and Literatures, Vol. 58, No. 4. (Oct., 1941), pp. 368-372.) findings (that were reinterpreted by Kenyon's later pottery studies) which stated:

This, unfortunately undermines your whole tie with Amenhotep III, especially when Kenyon's work pushes the final date of the destruction of Jericho -farther- back into time. Where does your 40 year's wandering go? This, I wonder what exactly you mean by:
No it doesn't because you limited the reference. The archaeological reference here is that the Jericho of LBIIA had cartouches of Amenhotep III, which suggests it was not destroyed anytime before the reign of Amenhotep III, but that does not exclude several generations after. Even Kenyon noted cartouches were not that effective in dating because sometimes they became heirlooms. What Kenyon thus decided was a conservative 25-year period after the reign of Amenhotep III as her best estimate for the Israelite destruction of Jericho. She dates that from 1350-1325BCE with the late dating of Amenhotep III ending his rule in 1351BCE. So she specifically does not date it "during" his rule, but shortly afterwards, likely under the presumption that if somone received a cartouche late in the reign of Amenhotep III at middle age, they would live out another 20-30 years before dying, etc. Thus conservatively presuming some people who received a cartouche during the reign of Amenhotep III might have died out within 25 years of his death, that's when she dated this destructive level. But regardless, once some specific dates are applied to the fall of Jericho, the Biblical record dates that event 40 years earlier, so those dates imply the Exodus from 1390-1365BCE. In no way has this changed. Unless someone decides to date the fall of LBIAA Jericho substantially earlier or later than 1350-1325BCE. Which I am not aware of. For instance, when I check a customary dating for Amentotep III in an Egyptian history book it shows him in the LBIIA Period.

So again, for whatever was or was not found at Jericho, for whatever considerations there are, for some reason Kenyon decided to date the destruction of Jericho by the Israelites ALL THINGS CONSIDERED, between 1350-1325BCE. That implies an Exodus between 1390-1365BCE. Simple extraction.
I didn't limit the reference. The reference is limited in the scope of what you want it to do.

Now, one thing in here … Is that third quarter going forward or backward in time? See, in working in the BC’s to me, I’d put that third quarter at 1375-1350. Minor detail? Maybe, but it’s one of the reasons that academic reports explicitly state dates and date ranges. No confusion, or chance for same, = good.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
And here you show that you don't know about C-14 dating.
Oh, really, that might very well be true!

Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
-All- grains have lives short enough to be closely fixed to a specific C-14 intake.
Yes, and apparently it is +/- 25 years!!

Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
The big thing with this dating is that it's in large quantities and -charred-. The carbonizing of the fire is the important part here, not anything about the growing cycle of the grains. And, we -can't- date to within a -year- using C-14 dating. What we get is a good match +/- a range. C-14 dating is an exact science, but the world's supply of C-14 varies from year to year. As such, we get -close- not -exact- dates.
Yes but you don't say given a good sample what is to be expected in the way of range. I appears to be +/1 25 years.
No. It’s a range. It depends on how far back in time, how big the sample is, the means of dating, and/or how ‘clean’ or uncontaminated the sample is. Take where I do most of my work. A gram of charcoal run through a C-14 AMS dating analysis, even to go back 500 years, could have a range of 50 to 60 years, depending. Hence, a range of +/- 8 years to the BCs, to me, is very impressive. It’s a great help in putting the finds in context. In putting the remains above and below the charred layer in context, with closer and closer resolution. But it’s –not- pinpoint accuracy!

No matter how much you want to give that ‘peak’ on the chart a 99% accuracy, it –isn’t-.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
Okay. Here we have a nice graph and some laughable probabilities. Sorry Lars, it's true. The confidence levels reported are more like:
Oh great, so you're questioning the chart. This is what they found and it just turns out for this level the highest 99% probability fits into a specific very narrow range but it's not to be trusted! Okay. That's fair!
No, I’m not questioning the chart. I’m questioning the extrapolation that you put on it. It’s –your- numbers that I thought were laughable, at least I assume that it was your addition to put on the wonderfully colored boxes and numbers.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
Note the date ranges. I admit, a range of only 16 to 18 years is impressive. It does bring a fine point to the times in question. But look at the conclusion of "leaves no reasonable alternative but the period 940 to 900 calendar years B.C.E". Compare this with your:
This comment is about Level V, not Level IV. So you are confused or misunderstood the reference. My reference is for Level IV dates, and ranged, not level V. So there's no contradiction. I'm not challenging any of the dates provided nor the ranges.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
Again, huh. :huh:
"huh?" is correct! I was talking about City IV not City V.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
Well, seeing as how these dates are no longer valid, we don't need to dwell on these, but we'll keep going 'cause this is fun ...
They are "no longer valid" because you misquoted me. My reference is to Level IV, which peaks out at 874-867 BCE, not level V which peaks out between 935-918BCE. You have to get the right city level of comparison first before you comment. How about addressing the issues involved with Level IV. By the way, the pottery from Level IV matches the palacial "Solomonic" level from Megiddo and also Jezreel, which is why Mazar likely considered Level IV likely destroyed by Shishak by that association. But that doesn't change the dating. What you have to establish is that Level V of Rehov matches other historical and archaeological parameters to link it with Shishak other than a popular dating of 925BCE based upon the wrong eclipse reference during the Assyrian Period. So you have not yet addressed the key issues here.

Oh … Now here I thought were were concerned with Shishak’s conquest. Seems that’s supposed to occur during the Level V time-period. You want to look at Level IV? Okay, let’s look at the report …

Quote:
A large building of Stratum IV uncovered in Area C contained rich finds, including many pottery vessels typical for Iron Age IIA, cultic objects, and a rare Greek Middle Geometric vessel. Charred cereal grains found on the floor in thick destruction debris of this building were dated by AMS, because three measurements were made on subdivided samples. The dating results were consistent, within 1(sigma) of each other. The weighted average date [2755 +/- 25 years before the 14C present (yr B.P.)] gives a 1(sigma) calibrated age range of 918 to 892 yr B.C.E. with 25.4% relative probability and another age range of 880 to 836 yr B.C.E. with 42.8% relative probability (Fig. 2). The calibration curve descends steeply and regularly during the second half of the 10th century B.C.E. and the first two decades of the 9th century (Fig. 3). Then the calibration curve goes up around 875 B.C.E. to form a small plateau that lasts until 845 B.C.E. Hence, there are two principal options for the calibrated date of Stratum IV. The period 880 to 836 B.C.E. is most likely in probability terms, but 918 to 892 B.C.E. is also possible. The invasion of the Aramean ruler Ben Hadad I during the time of King Baasha of Israel (902 to 886 B.C.E.; I Kings 15:20) is a possible candidate. But other events following the end of the Omride Dynasty seem more plausible for the destruction of Stratum IV and the abandonment of the lower city. The Jehu revolt (843 B.C.E.), the Assyrian invasion of Shalmaneser III (841 B.C.E.), or the Aramean invasions of Israel during the time of Hazael (between 840 and 830 B.C.E.) all fit the radiocarbon dating results.
If Shishak's invasion falls in this level, we’re looking at a 880-836 time period. 871 BCE, then, is still within the range, but –way- on the early side. And, how the heck do the archaeologists working on the site screw up enough to put the invasion you so dearly want to put here in Level V?

Well, look at what they do. They look for things that –do- fit. We’ve got a couple of the Aramean invasions, an Assyrian invasion and the Jehu Revolt in there. The archaeologists look to the plausible before trying to jam something they want into the data.

Or wait …

You’re saying that the archaeologists are all using the wrong eclipse to date the invasion? Come on. If you’re so positive about the Ugarit eclipse, then can you somehow –prove- that the Assyrian one is wrong?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
Except that we've not Egyptian data from Amenhotep III's reign that backs that up. Nothing about any plagues, even in terms of unusual phenomena. And he's not a ruler who needed to be stricken from the record, oh, but wait ... What's this?
Again, you do not understand the reference I'm suggesting, which could entirely be my fault. Here goes, plain and simple. Amenhotep III dies in the Red Sea. His body is washed up on shore. They recognize him because of his regal clothes. They retrieve his battered and decomposing body and do their best to embalm him. In the meantime, his successor, Akhenaten, having seen these great miracles, gives homage to the god of the Israelites in his own way as "Aten" and becomes the best possible monotheist he can. The Exodus and the death in the Red Sea of Amenhotep III is dated to 1386BCE if we use Rohl's 12th year reference for the KTU 1.78 eclipse. When comparing that with when Kenyon dates the fall of Jericho, 1350-1325BCE, which is 40 years after the Exodus, 1386BCE dates the fall of Jericho within that range in 1346BCE. So we're set to go with coordination between Kenyon's dating and the KTU 1.78 dating; and yes, of course, Manetho's reference that the 17th year of Apophis is when Joseph was appointed vizier. That being said, if Shishak's invasion occurs in year 39 of Solomon then 871BCE is the true date for his invasion which fits level City IV end-destruction level, associated by some with Shishak since the pottery from this level is well matched to the palacial levels at Mediggo and Jezreel which are associated with Solomon's works.

Okay … Since we’ve already covered the eclipse above, let me just hit on your hero of the hour here, Rohl. Now, he’s an Egyptologist. And he has written up his prestigious ‘New Chronology’, through Test of Time and Legend, involves a major reworking of not only Egyptian chronology but also some general Mesopotamian chronologies. Why is it that his chronology isn’t widely accepted?

It’s –not- well based in fact! Look to Pharaohs and the Bible. David Rohl's chronology untenable (English Translation), from the December 1999 Dutch journal, Bijbel, Geschiedenis en Archeologie. And, not just that article, there are many problems when one tries to integrate Rohl’s chronology with the rest of the world.

In light of that, I’ll stick with chronologies that are a bit more … oh … conservative and factually based. But, since you want to use Rohl’s chronology then you have to use it consistently. Now, that said, how does all this work as Rohl puts Akhenaten as pharoh from 1006 to 990 BCE?

Who ruled Egypt from 1386 BCE (when, as you state above) Amenhotep III died until 1006?


Point the next: Akhenaten's Monotheism.

Aton, the god, existed far before Akhenaten came to power. It's not his version of Yahweh. Look to the Sed-Festivals for proof:

Quote:
Sethe tried to date these festivals by using the changes in the names and titles of the god Aton, and he was followed in this by Gunn, who, when discussing the titularies of the Aton, also linked them with the Sedfestivals
of the king. Gunn drew attention to the fact that the epithets that accompanied the earlier and later forms of the didactic names of the god were those more often associated with the king himself than with a god, i.e. imi hb sd, "who is in the Sed-festival," and nb hb(w)sd, "lord of Sed-festival(s)." The second of these titles was one often adopted by a king who had celebrated more than one Sed-festival, examples of such kings being Thutmose III and Amenhotep III who had each lived long enough to have several festivals.

("The Sed-Festivals of Akhenaton", Eric Uphill, Journal of Near Eastern Studies, Vol. 22, No. 2. (Apr., 1963), pp. 123-127.)
Aton is understood as the father of Re. Akhenaten, when he sets himself up as a monotheist, is also supposed to be the son of Aton.

He's not inventing a new god to emulate the Hebrew god.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
Um ... So, if Akhenaten's reign was purged, why wasn't Amenhotep III's reign left intact? And why don't we have 'chiseled out' inscriptions that leave some information, but delete names and places of problem?
Um, where did you say your degree was from? JUST KIDDING!:notworthy: :angel: Here's how it works! Amenhotep III dies in the Red Sea. So that's the end of his reign and his inscriptions, right? So we don't expect him to record anything about the Exodus since since dies at the same time basically. What we do expect is some mention of it though in the next pharoah's records, that of Akhenaten! But... as is pointed out, his records are purposely destroyed, so, if he did, in fact mention it that record would have been destroyed.
So, you’re positing that the ruler of a country/nation/empire actually does everything during their reign –personally-? So when he dies, everything just stops?

Governments have a great administration of scribes, accountants, emissaries, military officials, local governors, you name it. These are the people who keep things going while the ruler idles away time, travels to different places, and, of course, after the ruler’s death and before the new ruler takes power. These people continue to work. To record. To monitor commerce.

And, the thing to note here is that –all- of the records of Akhenaten’s reign are –not destroyed. And, one would think that those administrators already at work on a task would continue on it until re-assigned. Inscriptions would continue to be made. Life, for everyone (except the dead ruler, of course) continues. And, Akhenaten –does- start out as Amenhotep IV. For a while, he’s just another pharoh; legitimate. Why –wouldn’t- life as usual continue?

Off Topic, and in response to questioning: Those of us with –training- see history not as a series of dates, but as a continuum of human existence. People make all those amazing events you’re trying to put in context happen, if they actually occurred.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
Now, wait. I already brought up EA 26, wherein it was noted that power had shifted from Amenhotep III to Akenaten. So what's the big deal with this? The ruler of the largest gold-producing nation dies and it's supposed to be kept quiet?
Yes, on an official basis if it was an embarrassing death like getting killed in the Red Sea by a living God of some slaves you just released but now want to massacre. Sure, I don't think that would have been a very popular historical note in Egyptian history. But certainly the "rumors" about what happend would have been big news! So thus Tursatta is just letting Akhenaten know he heard the reports which essentially confirms that not only had Akhenaten not officially told him about the death but perhaps it was not expected that he would because of the embarrassment involved.
So, no other rulers thought maybe to write down someplace, or make note of this ‘living God of some slaves’ who kills rulers? The Assyrians and Babylonians who later conquer Israel and Judeah didn’t take this death of a pharoh as a lesson to stay away from these folks? I don’t buy it, and it again, is conjecture. If it was, in fact, ‘big news’ where’s the 72 point headline on a clay tablet?


Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
The concept that some other ruler expressed how much he greived is supposed to be important to show that the ruler died chasing Jews through the Red Sea?
Not necessarily, but examined to be non-contradictory as well. He could have said, May your father rest in peace, he lived a good long while, I wish I were so lucky! Instead, heaing that he had died in the Red Sea with 1000 others, killed by the God of the Jews, his sentiment was that he would have preferred 10,000 of his own people had died instead if the king himself had been spared. Then he thought, in fact, obviously, 10,000 Egyptians instead of the king would have likewise obviously been better. The idea here is that the the king's death was with others and so it would have been spontaneous to mention more dying in exchange for the king's life. Even though, obviously these numbers were mentioned in "exchange" and that's very much understanding that the king was executed.
Whoa!

Executed? You can infer that from that wording? How about this …

How about all those people who have a loved one die, say … by being on a plane that crashes. So long as it’s not a pilot error or sabotage and it’s a simple mechanical malfunction, we can’t really call it an execution in any sense, right? But wait, how about if the president of the airline calls the family and says ‘Oh, I wish it had been me instead of your family member. Wait, it would have been better if 100 of my airline’s employees had died than your family member.’

Does that automatically make it into an execution somehow?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
This is merely a classic means of expressing similarity. 'Hey look, I'm missing him too. We're the same in that, unlike those heartless bastards over there.'
Sure, that works, maybe. But it is more likely he'd mention these greater numbers in relation to the king's life if the king was executed along with some number of others. In fact, how is 10,000 of his own people being put to death have anything to do with the king's death? Say if he died of old age or disease? That, compared to the way he did die, in a mass death in the Red Sea where, naturally, one would exchange the king's personal life for more mass deaths, or offer that some of his own people have been sacrificed in the Red Sea instead of the king himself. So it's a matter of interpretation.
Whoa again!

Where does the mass death come into it? It’s a trade. It’s talking about how the pharoh’s life is (to the writer) –worth- 10,000 normal people.

Please, show me, explicitly, word for word where the execution of –a single person- ruler or not, is in your miraculous EA 29. If it’s just interpretation, please recognize that I, and perhaps many others, don’t see –your- interpretation.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
And, at the same time, the 10,000 deaths is merely a 'I wish 10,000 of either my or your people had died rather than Amenhotep III'. Again, this statement expresses -how much- the ruler is apparently greiving. Do we see 10,000 deaths to commemorate the death? No, we don't. This is merely a manner of literary somantics. Going through the motions to infer similarities. It is in no way unique.
I can see that. BUT as I said, when you consider that he died in the Red Sea with say 1000 of the army, this statement could be taken in terms of a ransom exchange for the king's fate, that is, preferring, if some had to die in punishment that 10 times the number who died would have been preferable if the king's personal life were spared.
Not ‘When you consider’ but ‘If you consider’. The numbers you bring up in all of this don’t work for me.

Now, note, when I say that, even though I’m trained in the social sciences, I can tell that 10 x 1000 = 10,000, and that 10,000 seems to be the number on EA 29. (I say that because I haven’t been able to lay my hands on the –exact- text of the entirety of EA 29.)

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
Am I being perhaps flippant here?
Not at all! This is a judgment call. Except, I can see how the king could have said, "I wish 10,000 of my own people had died instead of the king", which was generous of him and would show how much he loved the king. But offering 10,000 Egyptians to die instead of the king wouldn't meet that sentiment. What comfort is there in wish 10,000 Egyptians had died instead of the king? On the other hand, looking at it from a legal point of view, a king being executed with his army, then a greater number dying to spare the king himself, on either side is a reasonable gesture of sentiment. To wish that 10,000 Egyptians had died rather than the king suggests that at least 1000 Egyptians had died with the king and he's just saying he'd prefer that even more Egyptians had died if the king had been spared. Otherwise, what right does he have to wish the death of Egyptians?


It’s a statement of –sympathy- between aristocrats. I can’t get what you get from it. If you –want- to read the Red Sea scene from DeMille’s The Ten Commandments in to this letter, I’m not likely to be able to persuade you, even if it’s not there. (which it isn’t, BTW)


Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
Yes. Why? Because the inference is solely literary and you're blowing it out of importance here. You haven't the archaeology to back that up ...
I don't mean to, but only to show it is consistent with a FAMOUS DEATH (he heard the report, not from Akhenaten, it was well known) and that for some reason he wants to exchange the life of the king with a great number of others, which makes sense if the king were punished along with other Egyptians. He's just saying he wished more Egyptians individually wer punished, up to 10,000 rather than the king himself with say 1000 others.
Punished?

-Where- do you get this to read into it? It’s not a ransom note, it’s a condolence letter.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
And, in your arguements here, I only see -less- and -less-, even with the information from the Amarna Letters.
Yes but you have false momentum since you got a few critical items confused.
Oh … Confused. Right.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
No, it doesn't. And your 'archaeohistorical' study is just so much conjecture and juggling of numbers. When put into an archaeological context with research that integrates with the larger knowledge base of archaeological data, it's worth just as much as the paper it's printed on - oh, sorry, it's an electronic format.
May be, but other professionals in your field do it. Israel Finkelstein not only dismisses David as conquering during the early 10th century BCE, he dismisses Solomon as building those palaces and since Jesus was a "greater Solomon" suggests the basis for Jesus' greatness is falsely placed. So a professional archaeologist, whose expertise is archaeology, not Biblical history or exegetical interpretation uses his interpretation of archaeology and his interpertation of the Bible to gain momentum for his Solomon bashing. So I'm just MAKING COMPARISONS.


My critical dating references have ZERO CONJECTURE:

1) Kenyon dates the fall of Jericho by the Israelites between 1350-1325BCE. Period. I just use that to project the Exodus to 1390-1365BCE. What conjecture?

2) Level City IV of Rehov is dated between 918-845BCE. That's what they tell me. The center of that range is around 871BCE and their own graph shows a high probability of 99% for a range between 874-867BCE. Where's the conjecture? I merely note that if the Exodus is dated to the 1st of Akhenaten in 1386BCE, based upon the KTU 1.78 text (which is conjecture, but not mine, but Rohl's) or 1390BCE per Kenyon's early dating, then Shishak's invasion would occur very close to City IV dating 874, 871 BCE, respectively. So I'm well founded.
I assume by bringing in Finklestein to the arguement, you're looking to The Bible Unearthed. That in no way is meant to be a mainstream view. Finklestein and Silberman do a job of supporting an ideological agenda. They, in that book, make those same unsupported, perhaps unsupportable, claims and connections that I see in your arguement. Were they to post their stuff on the board here, I'd go after their arguements as bad archaeology too.

Look up above for the Tel Rehov arguement. I still contend that there is -not- a "high probability of 99% for a range between 874-867BCE".

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
And, some people take this too far, not stopping when the facts indicate that they are obviously wrong. And I won't go into 'dysfunctional theories'. It's just too tempting.
"Dysfunctional" is very much in the eye of the beholder. For instance, it's dysfunctional to date the 763BCE eclipse to month 3 when Babylonian evidence suggests it would have been normally dated to month 2. So whose being dysfunctional. This eclipse is part of a series of the exeligmos eclipses 54 years and 1 month apart, so the next in the series, 709BCE occurs in the natural third month. If you use 709BCE to date the Assyrian Period then Shishak's invasion drops from 925BCE to 871BCE, City IV Rehov level. See how that works?
You brought the 'dysfunctional' tag into all of this ...

In looking at the month shift, you -are- taking into account the shift between the Julian and Gregorian calendrical systems, right? The vernal equinox in 1375 BC occured on or within a day of April 2 (Sawyer and Stephenson). Are you -sure- you've found a dating inconcistancy?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
We don't know when (if) the Exodus happened.
"We" don't, but I do.
Doesn't that make you wonder, if you're the only one who gets 'your truth'?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
We know why Akhenaten became a monotheist. His worship of Aton was there to help solidify himself at the pinacle of power, effectively making himself the 'only game in town'. He could control the military, the economy and, finally, the religious sentiments of the people.
Oops! My conjecturing is contagious! Fact is, there are probably a few good reasons to explain why Akhenaten became so radical religiously. But since we know from Manetho that he survived the Ten Plagues, the Ten Plagues becomes a valid reason as well. You're an anthropologist but I bet a psychiatrist would not dismiss that Akhenaten's behavior is suggestive of a traumatic or inspirational triggering event. Furthermore, lots of others joined him. It became the state religion. Nefertiti was "into it!" Definite high priestess if any. So what's her excuse? Oh I know, "I have to please my king to assure my power position in the empire, a small price for giving up Isis and Horus".
No, cultural analogy is a bit more than conjecture. My interpretation of -why- Akhenaten tries to work Egypt into a monotheism is very much like what Theodosis wanted to get out of making Christianity the state religion of Rome. How the Byzantine Emperor worked himself into becoming the patron of the Eastern Orthadox church. How the Aztec Emperors maintained control by being the most prominent and important figures to deal with the gods on a personal level.

Political leaders + the lure of religious control over a populace = total control. Heart and mind. Very tempting, no?


Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
And, finally, we have a mummy for Amenhotep III. How can we have the body if he was 'lost' in the Red Sea?
Again, you have the facts mixed up. The pesumption is that his body was retrieved. He would have been easy to identify, I think, by his clothing. Then he was embalmed. But as noted, a very special procedure for embalming was undertaken unique to him at that time. I believe its reasonable to presume if the body was already a few days old that it may have required this special process versus if he had died at the palace and was immediately embalmed.

Furthermore, I read through most of the other descriptions of the other mummys and not a single one had REPLACED limbs. Some had missing body parts, or disjoined ones, but none had bones belonging to some other body. Some of this include just a "big toe" even. So what? Robbers happened to rifle seeral mummies and those restoring them got the body parts mixed up? There just happened to be a missing toe from other corpse? A missing leg? No other corpses have REPLACED parts.

So lets CONJECTURE as to WHY a part would be replaced? and when would it be most convenient to do so? Seems to me if the king was badly damaged and he indeed suffered severe avulsions or amputations that the embalmers would have transplanted these items so the king's body was whole at the time of his embalming. That's more logital than finding some embalmed bone from another mummy that just happened to be available and getting it mixed up. If the former is the case, though, we have to presume some scenario where he would have lost a limb and a big toe. Being tossed around violently in the Red Sea would easily explain that.
Really? Live and recently deceased bodies are pretty durable. And, in high-saline water situations, bouyant. The Red Sea isn't particularly violent, and the assumed 'Reed Sea' even less, being a shallow lake.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Hex View Post
Face it. Archaeology is -not- your friend here.

- Hex
It's not if I'm misquoted. But it's my friend when correctly applied. WATCH.

I date the Exodus to 1386BCE based upon the Jews returning to Palestine in 1947. Can you believe it!!! Wow! That's my fixed date. I can't change it. Will archaeology help me and be my "friend."?
Um ... Please not that I didn't mis-quote. I actually quoted -everything- in your original post.

And, if 'correctly applied' means only taking the bits that you like and that don't go against what you like, well ...

It's very likely that most archaeologists don't apply archaeology 'correctly' for you.

Hence, NOT your friend.


I'm not even going to get into how you relate the Exodus and the Jews returning to Palestine in 1947. I can't even fathom it.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Well, turns out Kathleen Kenyon has some specific dates for the fall of Jericho by the Israelites, 1350-1325BCE. That means the Exodus would be dated 1390-1365BCE. How does that work out for my absolute fixed date of 1386BCE? FINE! See, Kenyon and archaeology are my friend!
And, for what it's worth here, again, no. Not when you put the pieces together as I've laid out here.

Sorry.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Thanks for sharing your "professional" view, it answers a lot of questions I might have had about why certain ideas persist, even in the more gifted circles.

Larsguy47
No problem. As a "professional", I'm glad to help. And, even if I don't convince you, but I do show some other readers how to do 'research' and make it 'valid', my job here is done ...
Hex is offline  
Old 03-28-2007, 03:11 PM   #175
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2000
Location: rationalpagans.com
Posts: 7,400
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by dpiperoax View Post
Joining this discussion after seven pages,
Hi! :wave: and welcome to the boards!
jess is offline  
Old 03-28-2007, 04:09 PM   #176
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Larsguy47 is cherrypicking his date for the KTU 1.78 eclipse. He has the temerity to assume that the writer of this text must have been Egyptian or Egyptian influenced though no evidence has been put forward for this, and though he clearly shows no knowledge of Egypt's relationship with the Levant at the time of, and as seen in, the Amarna letters (and coincidentally KTU 1.78). As KTU 1.78 was written not in Egyptian hieroglyphics or even Western Peripheral Akkadian, but in Ugaritic, this guarantees that the writer was Ugaritic, making Larsguy47's position untenable, for he depends on the necessity of the text having been strongly Egyptian influenced. A Ugarit found text written in Ugaritic, says that his assumptions are totally unfounded.

He poo-poos other, later analyses of KTU 1.78 because they don't fit his assumptions. What would one expect? He is conclusion driven.

I pointed to de Jong and Van Soldt's Nature article on the text, which gave 5 March 1223BCE. Then there is the Dietrich/Loretz Ugarit-Forschungen (#34, 2002, pp.53-74) date of 21 Jan 1192BCE. But Larsguy47 likes his date just fine and isn't interested in anything else, because his a priori commitments go for the 1375BCE.

You don't argue with that. There is no analysis going on. That would require a certain dose of scholarly acumen.

Why does he like 1375? Why does he have to have an Egyptian interpretation? He believes he can justify the exodus through such an unscholarly approach. But justify the exodus to whom?


spin
spin is offline  
Old 03-28-2007, 05:30 PM   #177
Regular Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2007
Location: augusta georgia
Posts: 321
Default

If i did my math right ,2 million people walking in a single file line , say 3 feet apart . would be a line a people stretching some 1136 miles long . It would be difficult not to be able to find these people
darinmac is offline  
Old 03-28-2007, 05:32 PM   #178
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Mar 2007
Location: Texas
Posts: 976
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
Larsguy47 is cherrypicking his date for the KTU 1.78 eclipse. He has the temerity to assume that the writer of this text must have been Egyptian or Egyptian influenced though no evidence has been put forward for this, and though he clearly shows no knowledge of Egypt's relationship with the Levant at the time of, and as seen in, the Amarna letters (and coincidentally KTU 1.78). As KTU 1.78 was written not in Egyptian hieroglyphics or even Western Peripheral Akkadian, but in Ugaritic, this guarantees that the writer was Ugaritic, making Larsguy47's position untenable, for he depends on the necessity of the text having been strongly Egyptian influenced. A Ugarit found text written in Ugaritic, says that his assumptions are totally unfounded.

He poo-poos other, later analyses of KTU 1.78 because they don't fit his assumptions. What would one expect? He is conclusion driven.

I pointed to de Jong and Van Soldt's Nature article on the text, which gave 5 March 1223BCE. Then there is the Dietrich/Loretz Ugarit-Forschungen (#34, 2002, pp.53-74) date of 21 Jan 1192BCE. But Larsguy47 likes his date just fine and isn't interested in anything else, because his a priori commitments go for the 1375BCE.

You don't argue with that. There is no analysis going on. That would require a certain dose of scholarly acumen.

Why does he like 1375? Why does he have to have an Egyptian interpretation? He believes he can justify the exodus through such an unscholarly approach. But justify the exodus to whom?


spin
Hi Spin, WHY are you soooo worried about 1375BCE? It's a legitimate match, so it will need to be considered anyway. Let me tell you WHY, again, 1375BCE has always been the best choice:

1) This is an Amarna Period event. That is, 1375BCE occurs during the "conventional" dating of Akhenaten, who is conventionally dated beginning his rule in 1378BCE. So 1375BCE belongs to the Amarna Period, no matter what, if you assign the eclipse to 1375BCE.

2) The whole suspicion of David Rohl for matching this text is an AMARNA LETTER to Akhenaten about a palace fire. That is significant because the text was found charred in a burned building. This was not the final level, however, another level that was also burned, the final level, above this level.

The reference is found in EA 151 (BM 29813) from Abi-Milku to Akhenaten, in part:

To the king, my Sun, my god, my gods: Message of Abi-Milku, your servant... 49-58 The king, my lord, wrote to me, "Write to me what you hve heard in Canaan." The king of Danuna died; his brother became king afer his death, and his land is at peace. Fire destroyed the palace at Ugarit; (rather), it destroyed half of it and so half of it has disappeared."

That's it. That's the whole entirety of connecting this fire, with that eclipse text. Very circumstantial. But also unavoidable, why?

BE-CAUSE...ONE

1) Ugarit is where the text was found in the palace ruins

AND TWO

2) Because the letter about the fire at the palace was written to Akhenaten.


For some reason, this was dated to the 12th of Akhenaten. As far as I can tell, there was only one dated Amarna text that was partially broken off and they can't decide if it was 12 or 2, but 12 has been the consensus and so it is dated to this year of Akhenaten. But I really don't care, since the Exodus dating to 1386 BCE would preempt the year of the fire if it was applied. It just so happens that year 12 is the correct year to make year 1 of Akhenaten fall in 1386BCE.

So, please understand, I'm representing the CONSERVATIVE dating here. Dating during the conventional time for Akhenaten and the only eclipse event happening during this time. Rohl and others have not only to move the timing for the destruction of Urgarit to some non-archaeological supported time, but the Amarna Period down to the time of David too? PA-LEEEZE! Even if there were three other potential dates for this reference, the history and archaeology alone would exclude them.

NOW ABOUT THE EGYPTIAN INFLUENCE.

As you noted from the Amarna Text Letter, Ugarit was under Egyptian influence at this time. Period. Egypt not only educated everyone in Egyptian universities who served in the government it also had it's own representatives in all these city states. Thus there are two strong possibilities for why Egyptian astroterminology could be used in this text: 1) Is because the Ugaritian magistrate was educated in Egypt and in Egyptian astronomy concepts, and 2) The Egyptian magistrate serving the king who is interpreting the meaning of the eclipse is simply expressing the details of the eclipse in terms of Egyptian astro-terminology.

Those three specific "Egyptian" elements in the text, again are:

1) B++ which becomes a reference to "sixth" HOUR, since the Egyptians had a concept of the 24-hour day. The "hour" was not a cultural concept generally elsewhere until much later (i.e. "hour" is referenced in the NT, but not in the OT); and

2) "Enter the sun through HER GATE" is quite basic for the Egyptian concept of the sun traveling through gates. Specifically 12 gates of the night through the body of the female goddes Hathor. Thus "HER GATE" that the sun enters through at sunrise, is Hathor's gate. Now. Having read hundreds of astronomical texts myself, I can assure you the common reference of significance besides which sector the eclipse begins in around the ege of the sun, and the specific time of the day or its intensity, is the ZODIAC HOUSE in which the event occurs. All that has meaning. But since during the day, you cannot observe the stars readily, the time to determine which zodiac house the sun is residing in is to observe it just before dawn. Thus the idea of which house the sun is in, defaults to which house the sun rose in, expressed in Egyptian as the sun entering through HER (Hathor's) GATE.

3) RESHEP, depicted as a bull and with the title of "LORD of Heaven" which is the same as "BEL/BULL of Heaven" the formal title for the zodiac sign of TAURUS is simply used to refer to Taurus here. This is confirmed because for this date, indeed, the sun was in Taurus. No one is pulling anything fast here or complex. It's very fundamental. Thus line two simply notes that the sun rose in Taurus, the "sun entered her gate in Taurus."

Line one is just as simple as well. The basics: HOUR: Sixth. DAY: New Moon, MONTH: Hiyyaru.

Now. This argument is so obviously convincing, since you can't claim there's no Egyptian influence here since this was the Amarna Period, that David Rohl and his group have given up this eclipse reference totally as part of his promotion for moving the Amarna Period down to the time of David. And that's because they have no choice.

The bottom line is, it is difficult to say there might not be Egyptian influences in this text at this time, and once you presume that B++ means "sixth" and apply that to the Egyptian hour, which begins at midnight, then you have an eclipse reference so specific it can only be matched to an eclipse that occurs there during that hour and the only one that does, likely in a thousand years in either direction is 1375BCE.

You want to go with another date? Be my guest!

All the quotes you gave did not understand the Egyptian text references in this text so they are looking at an eclipse that is non-sepcific to the sixth occur, needing to occur between 5am-6am as the text requires.

So what? What does mean? It means that Akhenaten's rule occurs sometime in the vinicity of 1375BCE. Guess what? We already KNOW that. This text just refines when his rule might have begun, that's all.

So I'm the conservative here by far. It's Rohl and others who want to displace the Amarna Period to a time it doesn't belong.

You misrepresent or misunderstand what is going on. I hope this was helpful,


Larsguy47
Larsguy47 is offline  
Old 03-28-2007, 05:44 PM   #179
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Larsguy47,

You haven't added anything to the discussion with this post. You've merely restated your predelictions. You cannot evince the Egyptian influence you wish so badly. Your discussion of fires gets nowhere, because you cannot relate them elsewhere unless you can have an independent marker, which you don't. So stop giving us reading repetitive stress, and show what you are trying to communicate, not by flood of effluence, but by hard evidence. So far you haven't got a thing in your favor. The date is up for grabs and you are in no position to say one is better than another, especially as you need one date and others would simply falsify your position. The text we are looking at has nothing to do with the Amarna letters so is not restricted to the Amarna period. Hello, Larsguy47, come in from the cold and try to do some scholarly analysis rather than let your biases rule your thoughts.


spin
spin is offline  
Old 03-28-2007, 09:07 PM   #180
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Mar 2007
Location: Texas
Posts: 976
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
And I guess they carried their water in their hands.


spin
Like Abraham, skin water bottles were far more convenient. Lighter and more accessible than pottery.

They did leave lots of broken skin bottles lying all over the place too! It was a huge MESS! But, as you know, over time, they biodegrated and so archaeologists, laking the skill to locate those lost molecules are not able to confirm for us anything.

Larsguy47
Larsguy47 is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 02:48 AM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.