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08-24-2012, 03:19 PM | #61 |
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Yes, the emerging church used them in their biblical canon as a single set. There is no evidence of any group exclusively preferring one of the canonical canonical gospels over any other.
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08-24-2012, 07:05 PM | #62 | |
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There is no credible evidence whatsoever that the Church emerged in the 4th century. |
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08-24-2012, 10:21 PM | #63 | |
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I only stated I know Gjohn was from a community because the work states it does, and is composed of multiple authors. the rest is not up for debate, and you would be hard pressed to find a decents scholar who states differently. |
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08-24-2012, 10:22 PM | #64 | |
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not until 325 AD and yes there is evidence that they were canonized in different forms at different dates. the original composition doesnt take a rocket scientist to figure they came from different geographic locations |
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08-25-2012, 07:07 PM | #65 |
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Whether or not they came from different geographic areas is not the point, and neither is whether they were simply WRITTEN by people from different regions. The fact is they were always presented as a SET of four gospels by officialdom written in a biblical style as a canonical set of documents. There is NO EVIDENCE that any single "heretical sect" only recognized one or another of the set to the exclusion of the others.
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08-25-2012, 07:44 PM | #66 | ||
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You appear to be making mis-leading statements. Justin's "Memoirs of the Apostles" contained information that is NOT found in the Canonised Gospel. You MUST first read writings attributed to Justin and NOT imagine. You MUST also read writing attributed to Irenaeus and NOT imagine. Now, in "Against Heresies" attributed to Irenaeus it is claimed the Ebionites used gMatthew ONLY and that the Valentians used gJohn and the Marcionites used gLuke. ---See "Against Heresies". Personally, I think the claims of some ancient propagandists about various sects is legend, myth, heresay and outright invention. Quote:
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08-25-2012, 08:04 PM | #67 |
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I don't know if there really was a Eusebius. i refer to the writer with that name by way of shorthand.
Yeah, yeah, I know what "Irenaeus" says. But there is no evidence of this whatsoever. Certainly how could one out of a set of four gospels advocated by "Irenaeus" have been used by this one "heretical sect" to the exclusion of the others, especially if according to official "orthodoxy" the set of 4 had been a set since the beginning........??? |
08-25-2012, 10:07 PM | #68 | |
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08-25-2012, 10:23 PM | #69 | |
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Please, if you don't know what you are talking about why do you call people of antiquity propagandists?? You need to identify credible sources and evidence in order to resolve any matter. You have NONE. |
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08-25-2012, 10:44 PM | #70 | |
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your fact is wrong with the word "always" we know they existed early, but the date they were combined as a set is another story how do you explain marcion not using all of them and being the first to combine a few of these but not all. ya you know 150 BC ish |
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