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Old 12-23-2006, 03:22 PM   #91
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Just out of interest Spin earlier you stated you felt close to doing a paper on this stuff.

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Harsh criticisms of this material are earnestly sought. As I feel relatively close to being able to write a fully fledged paper on the subject for a peer-review journal, I would like any surprises to come now rather than then.
from here.

Are you much closer?

thanks
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Old 12-23-2006, 05:34 PM   #92
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Why not give me an example of a Hebrew feminine which doesn't reinsert the -t when a suffix is added and you might have a minimal chance of making sense.
On the fine details of that, I will defer to Smith and Carlson. Smith certainly met you halfway when he wrote:

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You asked for evidence that the -t could be dropped from a place name and the vowel retained; I gave you Chenara from Numbers. You called that a one-off, and asked for evidence that this kind of thing was more than a scribal aberration, that it was or became part of the tradition; I gave you Genesara from Pliny.
The fundamental problem that I see is that you are trying to prove a negative, namely that Hebrew/Aramaic speakers just would not drop that "-t". Proving a negative isn't impossible in principle, but in practice, you have your work cut out for you. You not only have to consider what the habits of the LXX and Peshitta scribes were, but also the habits of Aramaic-speaking commoners who may not stick to the rules that the scribes have.
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Old 12-23-2006, 06:03 PM   #93
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On the fine details of that, I will defer to Smith and Carlson.
Fine details, gross details, whatever.

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The fundamental problem that I see is that you are trying to prove a negative, namely that Hebrew/Aramaic speakers just would not drop that "-t". Proving a negative isn't impossible in principle, but in practice, you have your work cut out for you.
What I have done is to show what the normal usages were at the time and to show that there was not a single example of the Naz- terms which evinced what one would expect given the normally understood trajectory.

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You not only have to consider what the habits of the LXX and Peshitta scribes were, but also the habits of Aramaic-speaking commoners who may not stick to the rules that the scribes have.
As Doctor McCoy said in so many ways, "he's dead, Jim."


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Old 12-23-2006, 06:06 PM   #94
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Just out of interest Spin earlier you stated you felt close to doing a paper on this stuff.



from here.

Are you much closer?

thanks
Well, I got a first draft down, but then it didn't get past that. If I can't get out of here with something as straightforward as this, I don't think I'd ever get it published.


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Old 12-23-2006, 06:51 PM   #95
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What I have done is to show what the normal usages were at the time and to show that there was not a single example of the Naz- terms which evinced what one would expect given the normally understood trajectory.
What you have not done is established that the "-t" could not be dropped, and judging from what Smith brought out, you missed some cases where the "-t" was dropped.
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Old 12-23-2006, 07:28 PM   #96
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What you have not done is established that the "-t" could not be dropped, and judging from what Smith brought out, you missed some cases where the "-t" was dropped.
Smith was a little confused over what the Meshillemoth issue was about. He was also unable to establish the relationship between Gennesar and Kinnereth. I have no problem here.

The missing -t is part of your problem, along with the zeta in every instance. I can sit back on the issue and watch you squirm.


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Old 12-24-2006, 05:56 AM   #97
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Smith was a little confused over what the Meshillemoth issue was about. He was also unable to establish the relationship between Gennesar and Kinnereth. I have no problem here.
Pliny is still a problem. Saying that he "worked from texts, not from people" is a vague, handwaving response.
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Old 12-24-2006, 12:00 PM   #98
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He was also unable to establish the relationship between Gennesar and Kinnereth.
Just for clarification, are you saying that Gennesar(et) and Kinnereth are etymologically unrelated?

Ben.
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Old 12-24-2006, 03:18 PM   #99
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Just for clarification, are you saying that Gennesar(et) and Kinnereth are etymologically unrelated?
Yup.

Hebrew KAF -> Greek chi.

And where does the -s- come from? I'd love a precedent in Hebrew for that.

They are obviously two different words.


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Old 12-24-2006, 04:52 PM   #100
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Yup.

Hebrew KAF -> Greek chi.
(Or kappa.)

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And where does the -s- come from? I'd love a precedent in Hebrew for that.

They are obviously two different words.
I suspect rather that Gennesaret is a Graecized corruption of Chinnereth. Nevertheless, even if we ignore Chinnereth, does not Gennesaret itself furnish an example of the flexibility of endings? The synoptic evangelists call Gennesaret what Josephus calls Gennesar and Pliny calls Genesar(a).

Or, if we ignore Gennesaret, we have Chinnereth coming out as Chenara in Numbers 34.11, as I mentioned.

And what about Daberath? The LXX leaves the ending in at Joshua 19.12, but drops it at 1 Chronicles 6.72. (It drops even more than the ending at Joshua 21.28.)

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