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Old 05-06-2012, 01:19 PM   #41
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"Paul" is indeed saying that all the Jews are enemies of all people. This passage is completely compatible with Christian theology and there is nothing strange or unusual about it within that context. Arguing for an interpolation is merely a modern attempt to hand-wave away the shocking anti-Semitism present in the NT and related early church literature and pretend it isn't there.
Where did you get the idea that Ehrman argues for interpolation here?
I wasn't arguing against Ehrman, I was arguing against the gist of this thread which says that it is an interpolation.
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Old 05-06-2012, 02:00 PM   #42
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We are just going in circles with Ehrman. He presented a STRAWMAN "TF" which is NOT found in any source of antiquity.

On page 61 of 'Did Jesus Exist?' Ehrman presented an altered TF with all the evidence that Jesus was Myth completely ERASED--the RESURRECTION of Jesus is Missing.

Ehrman Admitted that Josephus could NOT have written the the UNALTERED TF. See Page 59- line 23-32, Page 60- line 1-13 of Did Jesus Exist?

As soon as Ehrman ADMITTED that Josephus did NOT write the TF then his whole book is Rubble. Ehrman must use ADMITTED unrealiable sources for the history of his anti-mythicists Jesus.
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Old 05-07-2012, 03:24 AM   #43
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As a work "in progress " I think these verses were inserted later from a marginal gloss or a writer who was referring to is own problems.

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Let me just throw my own two cents in looking at the CONTEXT of these verses:

14 For you, brothers and sisters, became imitators of God’s churches in Judea, WHAT churches in Judea? Where? which are in Christ Jesus: Were there churches in Judea that were NOT in Christ Jesus?
You suffered from your own people the same things those churches suffered from the Jews in other words, Paul's own people who were the churches were not his own people 15 who killed the Lord Jesus HOW was he killed? Was he shot? Was he stabbed or poisoned? Or was he crucified to atone for everybody? Heck, even the Nicene Creed doesn't mention anything about Jews and the prophets and also drove us out. WHO is "us"? Where were anybody DRIVEN out, with or without Paul?
They displease God and are hostile to everyone 16 in their effort to keep us from speaking to the Gentiles so that they may be saved. Well, according to Paul in the epistles there were MANY churches in the world, so how could the Jews have been interfering with their success? In this way they always heap up their sins to the limit. The wrath of God has come upon them at last Meaning the destruction of the Temple or Bar Kochba's rebellion or WHAT?
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Old 05-07-2012, 03:47 AM   #44
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He is refuting a (frankly hare-brained) mythicist argument for Eusebian forgery by pointing out that the core is more likely to be authentic than to be Eusebian.
A "mythicist argument"? Ken Olson is a mythicist?
...and hare-brained?
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Old 05-07-2012, 04:33 AM   #45
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A "mythicist argument"? Ken Olson is a mythicist?
...and hare-brained?
Michael are you going to address this?
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Old 05-07-2012, 04:50 AM   #46
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How does Ehrman do it in a disungenuous fashion?
He does not inform his lay reader of the depth of the scholarly argument. His readers do not know that scholars widely regard all of 1 Thess 14-16 as an interpolation, not just the last phrase. Lay readers cannot be expected to know what scholarship says, Ehrman has a duty to be honest about that, but fails.

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I'm not sure if he states that he personally accepts partial interpolation in TF (he finds the question irrelevant for the topic of HJ/MJ). But he states the majority of scholars go that way. And there is manuscript evidence that what we have wasn't the original, so the TF must have been editted or inserted in whole: Origen. :huh: Ehrman doesn't mention Origen, but in his footnotes he points to a chapter in Meier's "Marginal Jew" book, where I assume a fuller discussion is provided.
There is no "manuscript" evidence. The question were bits and pieces edited in or out, or was the whole thing inserted whole. Ehrman spends quite a lot of time, as Carrier describes, murdering electrons on the argument for a partial interpolation. He spends next to nothing explaining the arguments for the entire passage being an interpolation. As was already noted, he refers to Doherty's argument on disgressions in Josephus to argue against this. He does not engage the peer-reviewed scholarship (cited in Theissen & Merz, but then ignored) that demonstrates the passage is a seam in the text (T & M cite Norden). For a better discussion, by far, the lay reader should read Theissen & Merz's The Historical Jesus. It is much more thorough and reasoned than Ehrman's "crap." Although on this point (the discussion of Josephus), I think they fail to account for Norden, even after citing the work.

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On Josephus: whether Josephus wrote something about Jesus or whether he didn't, Ehrman regards the question as not important to the HJ/MJ debate. But on 1 Thess 2, Ehrman argues how much is interpolated. The question there is of much more importance. If only the last part of 2:16 was interpolated, then it is evidence towards the HJ.
He says he doesn't, but the fact that he includes it in his discussion and the way he tilts the argument in his favor suggest otherwise.
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Old 05-07-2012, 04:55 AM   #47
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What about:
Rom 9:3 For I could wish that I myself were accursed from Christ for my brethren, my countrymen according to the flesh, 4 who are Israelites... 5 of whom [are] the fathers and from whom, according to the flesh, Christ [came]...
Romans 9:8 "It is not the children of the flesh who are the children of God, but the children of the promise are counted as offspring."

Children of the flesh = Jews. So, in the very same verse in which you imagine that Paul is supposedly defending Jews, he explicitly states that Jews are not the children of God. "For not all who are descended from Israel belong to Israel, and not all are children of Abraham." No Jew wrote nonsense like this.

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Rom 11:1 I say then, Hath God cast away his people? God forbid. For I also am an Israelite, of the seed of Abraham, [of] the tribe of Benjamin.
Church propaganda. God hasn't "cast away his people," but he will if they don't come to recognize the prophetic genius of Paul and his Christ Jesus exegesis.

As Jewish scholars have maintained for 100 years now, there is nothing in the epistles to give us any reason to think that Paul was ever trained in rabbinical thinking or was an ethnic Jew from "the tribe of Benjamin." I would go further and say that there's little reason to think "Paul" was anything other than church propaganda and legend. If he did exist he was a liar, so it really doesn't matter either way. He has zero credibility.
He might well have been a liar, so we should evaluate his writings, as one would anyone's writings, with skepticism toward what he says. However, if he is attempting to sway people to his point of view, we can probably accept what he says on that (his point of view), can't we?

I think there is reason to doubt his autobiographical pronouncements. I think his Jesus-beliefs accurately reflect what he felt were reasonable arguments to evangelize people into the Jesus Christ-cult.
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Old 05-07-2012, 05:31 AM   #48
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The only questionable part to me is "wrath has come upon them at last". But if this (or 1 Thes 2:14-16 as a whole) has been deliberately inserted by a later interpolator as a reference to the Temple, why didn't he/she refer directly to the destruction of the Temple? But if this would have been considered too obviously anachronistic by the interpolator, why refer to the wrath coming upon them "at last" at all?
You could argue that, but it will not be a convincing argument. There are all sorts of problems with 14 & 15 which you would have to address in defending its authenticity. Right in the first phrase "be imitators" we have a problem. The verse says 'ὑμεῖς γὰρ μιμηταὶ ἐγενήθητε ἀδελφοί τῶν ἐκκλησιῶν τοῦ θεοῦ' - (you have become the imitators of brothers of the churches of God). There seems to be a Freudian slip in Ehrman's translation, as "be imitators" is a rather important verse of 1 Cor 11, which says 'μιμηταί μου', be imitators of me (as I am also of Christ). So Ehrman, deservedly a famed expert in Orthodox Corruptions of the texts, is likely aware that this paraphrase looks like a ripoff of another verse and tells us that via brain fart.
I don't think I understand your point, which seems to me to be: The passage is similar to another passage by Paul, which suggests it is not authentic to Paul?
Paul does not say "be imitators, brothers, of the churches in Judea". Look up the translations of the verse. It is evidently a mistake. I am suggesting Ehrman was aware, somewhere in his mind of Paul's maxim "be imitators of me", and that Paul is rather insistent on his independence. He is combining the reading of 1 Th 2:14 and 1 Cor 11:1.


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The second big issue with 2:14 is that it presupposes a 'Gentile church' in Judea, which is, well, laughable, given that the Jews also forbade the saving of Gentiles. Only a real anti-Jewish fanatic from well after the war would have concocted such a sentence. It is quite surprising that Ehrman would not see through such a nut-headed ploy.
Again, I don't think I am reading you accurately here, because the passage seems to say that the churches in Christ were being persecuted by the Jews in Judea. Wouldn't this be the Jewish Christians of James and co, rather than a Gentile church?
Ok, I see where the problem is. Two things: one, Paul's invariably references his own Gentile communities. Reading the Paul of Acts into this passage does not work, since Paul / Saul would have been one of the Jews doing the "driving out". And I am not sure you want to believe he was such a hypocrite.

Two, the writer of this passage is apparently aware of the proscription of saving the Gentiles that the Jewish Jesus of Matt 10:5 proclaims. TMK, there was no other taboo on saving Gentiles that the Jews enacted. The Jews have always been actively proselytizing.

Best,
Jiri
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