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Old 02-14-2006, 09:25 PM   #81
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Default Why do some Christians assume that the Bible is inerrant?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
But if God is evil, he could easily duplicate anything that is attributed to the God of the Bible.
Quote:
Originally Posted by mdarus
Ok, let's play your game.

1) If God were evil, he would appear to be good to attract followers.

2) God appears to be good.

3) Therefore God is evil

Let (1) be a given. Your biblical quotations that ascribe this behavior to Satan is sufficient to establish the premise. However, you could argue that if God were evil he might not care if he had followers. In that case, his motivation to appear to be good could be shear meanness to lead people along. But then you are back to this evil God caring whether people are fooled.
But if an evil God exists, he has everybody fooled because we can’t be certain whether or not he exists.

Quote:
Originally Posted by mdarus
However, we have a lot of problems with (2). God does not seem to be consistent about this at all. Sometimes he does not appear to be good. He does not stop bad things from happening when he could. This site is full of biblical examples of God "behaving badly."
There aren’t any problems at all with item 2. Inconsistency creates confusion, and that would please an evil God. An evil God would not necessarily care what people believed about him.

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Why can't God be amoral? An amoral God would not necessarily be interested in sending anyone to heaven.
Quote:
Originally Posted by mdarus
The usual problem with this idea is this: If there is a God, he is the one who defines morality. The only way to get to an amoral God is to have a God with no sense of right and wrong for his creation. This would be close to the evil God above who simply does not care. This type of apathy is much more likely in humans.
An amoral God could not possibly define morality. A web definition for the word “amoral� is “The term amoral is distinct from the terms moral and immoral, and simply refers to the state of lacking any moral characteristics. An amoral act is not morally good nor is it morally bad - it simply is. An amoral man is one who has no conception of morality or moral judgments. Babies, for example, are amoral.�

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
If intelligent design is a given, what evidence do you have that the uncaused first cause is the God of the Bible?
Quote:
Originally Posted by mdarus
Intelligent design does not claim to point to the God of the Bible. However, it depends on what you mean by "evidence." If you mean "verifiable proof", there is little to go around. If you mean "indications", there are many that are quite satisfactory to lots of believers.
And the talking donkey that the Old Testament mentions is quite satisfactory to some believers, right?

Quote:
Originally Posted by mdarus
ev•i•dence n.

1) A thing or things helpful in forming a conclusion or judgment: The broken window was evidence that a burglary had taken place. Scientists weigh the evidence for and against a hypothesis.

2) Something indicative; an outward sign: evidence of grief on a mourner's face.

3) Law. The documentary or oral statements and the material objects admissible as testimony in a court of law.
I do not have any idea whatsoever what you are talking about. The distribution of good things and bad things in the world provides good evidence that if a God exists, he is amoral. Inconsistency is what would most describe an amoral God, and that is just what we have in the world today. Goods things are sometimes distributed to those who are in greatest need, but frequently, good things are not distributed to those who are in greatest need.

Several days ago, I started a popular thread at the GRD forum that is titled 'Why can't God be amoral?' You can get a lot of extra competition if you participate it that thread, including from two moderators who are making posts. I suggest that you participate in that thread.
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Old 02-16-2006, 10:43 AM   #82
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Hi Johnny -
Quote:
But if God is evil, he could easily duplicate anything that is attributed to the God of the Bible.
Christ dying on the cross was without a doubt the act of a God full of goodness.

If God was evil, we might as well all give up now. There would be absolutely no point in anything. Nothing could be sensibly discussed; there would be chaos. On the contrary, I see order and certainty in the world travelling at 65,000mph through the universe. Time is short.
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Old 02-16-2006, 11:52 AM   #83
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Default Why do some Christians assume that the Bible is inerrant?

Quote:
Originally Posted by JohnnySkeptic
But if God is evil, he could easily duplicate anything that is attributed to the God of the Bible.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Helpmabob
Christ dying on the cross was without a doubt the act of a God full of goodness.

If God was evil, we might as well all give up now.
How do you know that God is not evil?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Helpmabob
There would be absolutely no point in anything.
Obviously, many atheists disagree with you. The present is sufficient for them because that is all that they believe that they have. If God wishes for them to believe otherwise, there is most certainly not anything preventing him from showing up and clearly revealing himself to everyone. I am an agnostic.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Helpmabob
Nothing could be sensibly discussed; there would be chaos. On the contrary, I see order and certainty in the world travelling at 65,000 mph through the universe. Time is short.
If God is evil, he could easily have created the universe and order. In addition, why can't God be amoral? How would an amoral God act any different than the God of the Bible? Exodus 4:11 says "And the Lord said unto him, Who hath made man's mouth? or who maketh the dumb, or deaf, or the seeing, or the blind? have not I the Lord?" In addition, God killed unborn children in Sodom and Gomorrah and Tyre.
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Old 02-16-2006, 11:59 AM   #84
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Quote:
Originally Posted by WILLOWTREE
Hi Steve:

I read your post.

We agree there are major grammatical errors in the Bible.

I know there are no factual errors.

Ray
I am curious, how would one go about spotting an error in the Bible?

What could be constituted as an error?

Is there some method which could be used by a Christian to identify an error?

In my experience, the concept of inerrancy is generally accepted prior to the believers investigation of the texts, and then, whatever would be seen as an error to the uninitiated is readily explained using special pleading and ad hoc explainations, ie. apologetics.

The same can be said about Mormons and their texts, Muslims and the Koran, or any other group which believes its scriptures are the truth.

Inerrancy is a presupposition. Hand a person a Bible and let them study it thoroughly without coaching, and they couldnt possibly come to the conclusion that it is the work of a god who wants to communicate a coherant message to his creations.

Just for arguments sake, even if it were inerrant, you still have no means to determine its correct interpretation.

Zen
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Old 02-16-2006, 04:45 PM   #85
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Default Why do some Christians assume that the Bible is inerrant?

Revelation 22:18-19 say "For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book: And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book." If tampering with the texts were not possible, there would have been no need for the warnings. Regarding "God shall take away his part out of the book of life," isn't that talking about Christians?

Today, and even more so centuries ago, it would be a simple matter for some skeptics to rewrite parts of the Bible, take it to some remote jungle regions, and pass it off as "the real thing."
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Old 02-17-2006, 03:15 AM   #86
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Hi Johnny -
Quote:
How do you know that God is not evil?
What point is there to any discussion whatsoever if God is evil? I could refute every single point on this froum with 'but if God is evil you are probably wrong'. There would be no point to anything. All existence would be futile. But as we can clearly see, this is not the case. It's a big timewasting 'if'.
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Old 02-17-2006, 07:33 AM   #87
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Zenaphobe
I am curious, how would one go about spotting an error in the Bible? What could be constituted as an error?
You know, I ask the same type of question to higher critics, lower critics, redaction critics, source critics, etc. How would they ever be able to recognize an inerrant Bible. e.g. One where the claims of the authors are simply true ?

Shouldn't folks realize and acknowledge when they are using methodologies for which errancy is a presupposition ?

Shalom,
Steven Avery
http://groups.yahoo.com/group/Messianic_Apologetic
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Old 02-17-2006, 09:31 AM   #88
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Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus
You know, I ask the same type of question to higher critics, lower critics, redaction critics, source critics, etc. How would they ever be able to recognize an inerrant Bible. e.g. One where the claims of the authors are simply true ?

Shouldn't folks realize and acknowledge when they are using methodologies for which errancy is a presupposition ?

Shalom,
Steven Avery
http://groups.yahoo.com/group/Messianic_Apologetic
It doesn't take any special methodology to spot errors in text. If one portion of the text says "X" and another portion says "NOT X" then you know that you've spotted an error. You apply this common sense approach to every other book that you read other than the Bible. Why is that? Why shouldn't we also assume that the Koran or the Book of Mormon is inerrant until proven otherwise? Their apologists can certainly also explain away any apparent textual difficulties.
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Old 02-17-2006, 10:25 AM   #89
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Quote:
Originally Posted by pharoah
It doesn't take any special methodology to spot errors in text.
Pharoah, you really miss the gist of my questions.

Very frequently the errors or contradictions that are claimed are nowhere near the "X" type you point out. Often they are claimed after carrying a baggageful of the source, redaction and textual criticisms perspectives.

"Since this was redacted, since this was written in the 2nd century, yada... that shows how wrong/absurd/inaccurate is a/b.c"

At least a little forthrightness would say "well, I have already presumed forgery/redaction etc. in coming to this new accusation and conclusion".

There is a similar schema in using the error-laden Duckshoot Text. Telling believers that they are wrong to use the historic Bible and look at all these errors in the modern error-laden version we will kindly supply you.

And if you want to discuss supposed X/not X issues that is fine.
Related but different discussion.

Keep in mind that the BoM and the quran have a fundamental problem. They are claimed to be built off the Tanach and the NT, yet the islamists claim those are corrupt, while the lds folks have a similar theory of mistranslation. Their own base falls.

This destructive dissonance places morman and islamist apologetics in a whole nother ballgame than those who claim that God's word is pure from Genesis to Revelation.

Also I was asking how someone mired in the milieu of the criticisms would ever be able to see and accept an inerrant text. It seems intrinsically impossible, and that presupposition should be honestly recognized when those criticisms are insisted upon.

If it is right for the believer to state and acknowledge their lens, it is similar right for the skeptic who has accepted paradigms of suspicion as their a priori base to also so acknowledge.

Shalom,
Steven Avery
http://groups.yahoo.com/group/Messianic_Apologetic
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Old 02-18-2006, 06:34 AM   #90
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Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus
You know, I ask the same type of question to higher critics, lower critics, redaction critics, source critics, etc. How would they ever be able to recognize an inerrant Bible. e.g. One where the claims of the authors are simply true ?

Shouldn't folks realize and acknowledge when they are using methodologies for which errancy is a presupposition ?

Shalom,
Steven Avery
http://groups.yahoo.com/group/Messianic_Apologetic
Let me see if I understand,

Are you saying that all examinations of the Bible should start with a default position of inerrency because its authors claim their writings are true?

Should this be the case with all writings?

When I look at the Zand-i Vohuman Yashttext-http://www.avesta.org/mp/vohuman.htmlshould I assume it free of error and put the burden of proof on the critic to prove otherwise?

Is the burden of proof on the critic? Or, does the Zoroastrian have the burden to show his sacred text is inerrant?

Would it not be reasonable to assume errancy reguarding all texts presented for examination, and let the burden of proof fall on those who assert inerrancy?

If this is not the case, would you please list the holy books which we should assume to be inerrant till proven otherwise.

Thanks.
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