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Old 09-09-2004, 01:43 AM   #91
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GDon,
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Perhaps a better way to put it is: stop assuming! It seems your points are built on assumptions: if Paul was a HJer, he would say "archon" instead of "archons"; he would say that the Jews or the Romans killed Christ, not Satan.
You are the one that stated that archons meant Pilate. Its ok if you have shifted your position now.
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Yet, we have examples of later HJ writers that say that Satan caused the Jews to kill Christ (AoI), and that "archons" killed Christ (Acts).
Are you admitting that archon (the ruler of this world), in AoI, is used in a spiritual sense? I mean, he does take human form and descend from the firmament to spread lawlessness on earth.
Do we agree on this?
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Yes, they are late, but there doesn't appear to be any reason why Paul couldn't be referring to the same ideas. Stop assuming that he doesn't, and give me reason to believe that he doesn't.
The interpretation of majority of scholars. Plus Origen. Plus Marcion. Plus Clement of Alexandria. Plus me. Plus Doherty.
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The point that you seem to forget is that Paul believed that Christ resurrected and then appeared to a number of people after His death. He also appeared to Paul
Asclepius was son of a God and mortal woman. He lived as a demigod, healed many and raised people from death. We was killed by Zeus for blasphemy (raising the dead) but was resurrected and made immortal. From heaven, he would appear to his believers on earth. Paul may not have borrowed from this, but its the same kind of thing. We don't claim that Jesus was a Xerox copy: just that in a form-critical sense, they can be grouped as ideal types.

As Price says, "Ideal types, as Bryan Wilson observes, are not Procrustean boxes into which phenomena must fit or be forced to fit. Rather they are yardsticks distilled from common features, yardsticks employed in turn to measure and make sense of the features the phenomena do not have in common. The differences are just as important as the similarities, which is why it is needful to study the various phenomena (in this case, ancient miracle-workers and inspired sages) each in its own right. Each is unique, but what they have in common with the other recognizable members of the same class will help us understand where they differ and why. Thus it is not helpful in studying the gospels to cross "Divine Men" off the list for gospel study either because the proposed members of the class are not all alike (as Jack Dean Kingsbury wants to do in The Christology of Mark's Gospel) or because there are also other elements besides that of the Divine Man in the gospels. Theodore J. Weeden (Mark: Traditions in Conflict) shows how Mark both presupposes and critiques the Christology of Jesus as a theios aner."

And before you launch to apples and oranges, Price adds: "...genres evolve precisely by means of "transgression" of genre conventions. What we are seeing in the Christian rewriting of Septuagint stories as Jesus stories is something like a mutant strain of what was happening over in the cousin religion of Rabbinic Judaism. An apple is not an orange. Neither is a tangerine, but it is helpful to compare a tangerine to an orange if you are trying to describe a tangerine. More helpful than comparing it to an apple or to saying it is like nothing else." here
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Christ wasn't just some ordinary man to Paul, even if He was historical. He was someone who had cosmic significance.
Most saviours and gods are.
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I see no reason to believe that Paul thought that Christ wasn't killed by a conspiracy of evil "archons", both earthly and spiritual, in the way described by AoI.
What about the opinion of the majority of scholars?

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I've only really just started looking at Paul. But on the 2nd C apologists, I find that Doherty has (in my opinion) deliberately misrepresented them in order to construct proof for his theory.
I await your substantiation of this claim.
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NO. A HJer could believe that Christ was killed by "spiritual" influences, e.g. Judas was influenced by Satan to betray Christ. The Jewish leaders were influenced by Satan to kill Christ.
An influence is not a demon. A demon is a being. Paul never seems aware of the existence of the Gospels. What makes you think he believed this anti-semitic propaganda from the gospels? You are really making huge leaps here.
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You've missed my point on this a few times. In AoI, the final (HJer) redactor leaves in the bit about Satan killing Christ. To me, this means that the redactor didn't consider this incompatible to his beliefs
Yes, but we know that history is not prophecy/vision. A Xstian would want to believe that anything he believes as historical was prophecized. So, when we find HJ details in a vision like Isaiah's, we know the redactor is engaging in prophecy-fulfilment.
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Why couldn't Paul, either? That AoI or Acts was "late" is only significant if you can show that the "early" position was different.
Early positions: Didache (50-120), 1 Clement (80-140), Epistle of Barnabas (80-120), Shepherd of Hermas (100-160), Odes of Solomon (150): They all lack a HJ and are either using "the son" (an intermediary saviour figure), "Christ" as an ever-present force, not someone that died in the past, or divine wisdom (Christ Logos) - similar to Jewish Personified wisdom we find in Sirach. (I have relied on Kirby's site http://www.earlychristianwritings.com for the dates). And remember, not even one gospel can be dated securely within the first century.
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Yet he seems to want to pin HJ Christianity into a small box.
We evidently read him differently then.
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I just can't see any reason to believe that there wasn't the two early streams - Pauline and Jerusalem Group - and both believed in a HJ.
Argument from personal incredulity? Read Doherty's Review of Crossan's Birth of Christianity (the review itself is a book) and of Robert Funk's Honest to Jesus to grasp the problems with Crossan's Twin Traditions and Funk's Reverse Christology.

Kirby,
I don't know where the phrase "non-christian writings" came from. That one appeals to platonic philosophy and worldview does not preclude that one is a Christian. My God.

Origen, De Principiis, Book III

Chapter 3
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3. We must, indeed, endeavour to ascertain whether that wisdom of the princes of this world, with which they endeavour to imbue men, is introduced into their minds by the opposing powers, with the purpose of ensnaring and injuring them, or only for the purpose of deceiving them, i.e., not with the object of doing any hurt to man; but, as these princes of this world esteem such opinions to be true, they desire to impart to others what they themselves believe to be the truth: and this is the view which I am inclined to adopt. For as, to take an illustration, certain Greek authors, or the leaders of some heretical sect, after having imbibed an error in doctrine instead of the truth, and having come to the conclusion in their own minds that such is the truth, proceed, in the next place, to endeavour to persuade others of the correctness of their opinions; so, in like manner, are we to suppose is the procedure of the princes of this world, in which to certain spiritual powers has been assigned the rule over certain nations, and who are termed on that account the princes of this world. There are besides, in addition to these princes, certain special energies of this world, i.e., spiritual powers, which bring about certain effects, which they have themselves, in virtue of their freedom of will, chosen to produce, and to these belong those princes who practise the wisdom of this world: there being, for example, a peculiar energy and power, which is the inspirer of poetry; another, of geometry; and so a separate power, to remind us of each of the arts and professions of this kind.
Chapter 2
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And the Apostle Paul teaches us that we ought not to give place to the devil; but "put on," he says, "the armour of God, that ye may be able to resist the wiles of the devil: " pointing out that the saints have to "wrestle not against flesh and blood, but against principalities, against powers, against the rulers of the darkness of this world, against spiritual wickedness in high places." Nay, he says that the Saviour even was crucified by the princes of this world, who shall come to nought, whose wisdom also, he says, he does not speak.
"Princes of this world" is used interchangeably with "rulers of this world".

Origen, De Principiis, Book III

Clement of Alexandria, Stromata, Book V
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Similarly speaks the noble apostle to the following effect: "Howbeit we speak wisdom among those that are perfect; yet not the wisdom of this world, nor of the princes of this world, that come to nought. But we speak the wisdom of God hidden in a mystery; which none of the princes of this world knew. For had they known it, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory."
Clement: "Plato, again, in the seventh book of the Republic, has called "the day here nocturnal," as I suppose, on account of "the world-rulers of this darkness; " and the descent of the soul into the body, sleep and death, similarly with Heraclitus"
Clement writes "the Son sees the goodness of the Father, God the Saviour works, being called the first principle of all things, which was imaged forth from the invisible God first, and before the ages, and which fashioned all things which came into being after itself. Nay more, the oracles exhibits the prophecy which by the Word cries and preaches, and the judgment that is to come; since it is the same Word which prophesies, and judges, and discriminates all things. "

Clement: "In reasoning, it is possible to divine respecting God, if one attempt without any of the senses, by reason, to reach what is individual; and do not quit the sphere of existences, till, rising up to the things which transcend it, he apprehends by the intellect itself that which is good, moving in the very confines of the world of thought, according to Plato."

Clement: "Accordingly, Plato says in the Epinomis, "I do not say that it is possible for all to be blessed and happy; only a few. Whilst we live, I pronounce this to be the case. But there is a good hope that after death I shall attain all." To the same effect is what we find in Moses: "No man shall see My face, and live."
Clement: "Plato also thought it not lawful for 'the impure to touch the pure.' "
Clement: "Rightly then, Plato, in the Epistles, treating of God, says: "We must speak in enigmas that should the tablet come by any mischance on its leaves either by sea or land, he who reads may remain ignorant.""
The Stromata or Miscellanies Book V

On Neo/Middle Platonism

Origen was Clement's student of secular and scriptural literature between 185-202. It is during this time that he familiarized himself with Plato's works and appreciated figurative or allegorical interpretation, as employed in the Greek mysteries, and applied it to the Jewish writings. Clement, his teacher, is more unabashed in his application of Plato's thoughts on Jewish Scriptures and early Christian beliefs regarding the nature of Jesus, cosmogony and divine wisdom as I have indicated above.

Plato's work Timaeus , in which he explained the origin or creation of the visible world, greatly influenced early Christian apologists and thinkers like Clement and Origen. The platonic worldview and method of interpretation subsequently influenced how these two interpreted the 1 Corinthians 2:8 passage above regarding the nature of the "rulers of this world". Ignatius and Marcion (a gnostic of docetic flavour - whose concept of demuigre was also Platonic in origin) shared the same interpretation, against Tertullian.

Like Philo Judaeus (Philo of Alexandria), Justin Martyr and Tatian were also influenced by (Middle) Platonism. And Platonic thought and interpretation is evident in their writings. As we learn from A. Hilary. Armstrong, An Introduction to Ancient Philosophy. (London: Methuen & Co. Ltd., 1947), 903, here, they believed that Platonism was the "best available instrument for understanding and defending the teachings of Scripture and Church tradition… like Philo, they did not believe that truth could conflict with truth and were confident that all that was rationally certain in Platonic speculation would prove to be in perfect accordance wit the Christian revelation. Their unhistorical approach and unscholarly methods of exegesis of texts, both pagan and Christian, facilitated this confidence."

Now, I don't know how and why Kirby seeked[sic] and never found. But Clement of Alexandria and Origen, are considered, without question, to have embraced a platonic worldview and employed platonic thought systems in their exegeses. And 'princes/rulers of this world' does appear in their writings, in fact, they even quote Paul.

Note to the readers: compare Clements "spheres" like "sphere of existence", "sphere of knowledge" etc with Paul's "sphere of the flesh" (kata sarka). Elegant .
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Old 09-09-2004, 08:16 AM   #92
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GDon,

Quote:
Asclepius was son of a God and mortal woman. He lived as a demigod, healed many and raised people from death. We was killed by Zeus for blasphemy (raising the dead) but was resurrected and made immortal. From heaven, he would appear to his believers on earth.
Given the above description, would you consider Asclepius historical or mythical?
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Old 09-09-2004, 12:35 PM   #93
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Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
I don't know where the phrase "non-christian writings" came from. That one appeals to platonic philosophy and worldview does not preclude that one is a Christian. My God.
Piffle. I didn't say such a thing.

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And 'princes/rulers of this world' does appear in their writings, in fact, they even quote Paul.
What is your problem? I stated clearly in this thread that "rulers of this age" is found only in Christian writers (83 times in the TLG), with Clement of Alexandria being the first after First Corinthians, which they all knew.

Also, you are wrong on the Epistle of Barnabas; its author accepted a Jesus on earth.

best,
Peter Kirby
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Old 09-10-2004, 02:29 AM   #94
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Kirby,
You are right. Barnabas doesn't belong to that catena. The point I should have made was that Polycarp of Smyrna, Clement of Rome, Barnabas and Ignatius of Antioch are among the first Christian 'fathers' who were completely unaware of the gospels, and of the passion as we find in the gospels. Their utter ignorance of the story of Jesus on earth, as portrayed in the gospels, and their slavish reliance to the OT severally, is confounding assuming that Jesus actually walked the earth as portrayed in the gospels.

This phenomena further reinforces the idea that the PN and Jesus' biographical details were a later creation that was unavailable to the early Christians.

I think I mistakenly conflated your position with Rick's:
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Then you should have no trouble finding a usage of the phrase in Platonic thought. Thus far, I've seen it nowhere save Christian writings. You can't say Christian usage was sourced by Platonic thought found only in Christian usage.
This statement assumes that there is no platonic thought/expression in Christian writings. Which is an erroneous assumption.

Theodore
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Old 09-10-2004, 07:12 AM   #95
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Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
This statement assumes that there is no platonic thought/expression in Christian writings. Which is an erroneous assumption.
It does no such thing. It assumes that you meant what you said.

You suggested it was to be found in neo-Platonic writings over and against the Christian writings already mentioned by Peter. If you made a mistake, you made a mistake, it's not going to be less of a mistake the more you try and cloud the discussion.

Regards,
Rick Sumner
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Old 09-10-2004, 08:06 AM   #96
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
GDon,

Asclepius was son of a God and mortal woman. He lived as a demigod, healed many and raised people from death. We was killed by Zeus for blasphemy (raising the dead) but was resurrected and made immortal. From heaven, he would appear to his believers on earth.

Given the above description, would you consider Asclepius historical or mythical?
Mythical.
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Old 09-10-2004, 01:33 PM   #97
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Originally Posted by GakuseiDon
Mythical.

Why?

Specifically, why doesn't the claim that Asclepius "lived as a demigod, healed many and raised people from death" suggest to you that he was believed to be a historical figure?
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Old 09-10-2004, 04:43 PM   #98
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
Why?

Specifically, why doesn't the claim that Asclepius "lived as a demigod, healed many and raised people from death" suggest to you that he was believed to be a historical figure?
While what you quoted sounds like myth, there is nothing there to suggest that he wasn't a historical figure. From here:
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It is believed that Hippocrates, a great doctor of antiquity, plied his trade on the island of Cos. It is also said that Hippocrates was a descendant of Asclepius.
The ancient Greeks believed him to be a historical figure. Perhaps the myths were based on an actual person, which I think is the most natural explanation, in the absence of evidence to the contrary.
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Old 09-10-2004, 05:45 PM   #99
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Originally Posted by GakuseiDon
The ancient Greeks believed him to be a historical figure. Perhaps the myths were based on an actual person, which I think is the most natural explanation, in the absence of evidence to the contrary.
Why is that "the most natural explanation"? When I read it, I came to the exact opposite conclusion (ie an originally mythical figure later obtained seemingly historical details).

The opinion you have recently expressed seems more consistent with your consideration of the evidence relevant to Jesus than your initial response.

It seems to me that your argument with Doherty's thesis is more about where the Incarnation took place than it is about whether Jesus was originally a mythical figure. I tend to somewhat agree with you in that I think that Doherty's argument for locating the sacrifice in some Platonic heavenly realm needs more support than he currently provides. I think that was a point Carrier made as well in his review. On the other hand, even if I assume that Paul believed Christ incarnated on earth, I still see nothing in his letters that denies an ultimately mythical status similar to what appears to be true of Asclepius. Where and, more importantly, when this incarnation took place is never specified. The only thing that has clearly taken place in the recent past is the appearance of a resurrected Christ.

Is it reasonable to assume that Paul completely avoids locating the execution of Christ in the recent past because of his "authority issues" with the Jerusalem Group?
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Old 09-10-2004, 08:41 PM   #100
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
Why is that "the most natural explanation"? When I read it, I came to the exact opposite conclusion (ie an originally mythical figure later obtained seemingly historical details).
"Most natural" because something had to have kicked off the belief in the person's existence. In the absence of other evidence, the assumption that there was a historical person sitting at the core of the myth is the most natural one. Of course, Christ Mythers would say that they have other evidence, which is fair enough.

Are there any mythological figures located in the last 3000 years who were regarded as real at some stage who we know for a fact were never historical? Moses, perhaps?

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The opinion you have recently expressed seems more consistent with your consideration of the evidence relevant to Jesus than your initial response.

It seems to me that your argument with Doherty's thesis is more about where the Incarnation took place than it is about whether Jesus was originally a mythical figure. I tend to somewhat agree with you in that I think that Doherty's argument for locating the sacrifice in some Platonic heavenly realm needs more support than he currently provides. I think that was a point Carrier made as well in his review. On the other hand, even if I assume that Paul believed Christ incarnated on earth, I still see nothing in his letters that denies an ultimately mythical status similar to what appears to be true of Asclepius. Where and, more importantly, when this incarnation took place is never specified. The only thing that has clearly taken place in the recent past is the appearance of a resurrected Christ.
Yes, I agree with you here.

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Is it reasonable to assume that Paul completely avoids locating the execution of Christ in the recent past because of his "authority issues" with the Jerusalem Group?
No, it isn't... I can't see why that should stop him at least mentioning the place of Christ's execution.

It's puzzling. I think that if Paul truly believed that Jesus had commissioned him to preach to the Gentiles, and he disagreed with TJG over Mosaic Law, that Paul would have quoted Jesus to provide support for his mission to the Gentiles. That Paul doesn't quote Jesus on this is unusual. Something else must be at work. I just find it hard to believe that the only teaching Paul had from Jesus (outside the Lord's Supper) had to do with divorce, as important a topic that may have been at the time, regardless of whether Christ was historical or mythical.
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