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08-04-2012, 03:16 PM | #51 | |||
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08-04-2012, 03:18 PM | #52 | |||
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08-04-2012, 04:49 PM | #53 | |
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http://www.earlychristianwritings.co...tullian01.html But Christian, so far as the meaning of the word is concerned, is derived from anointing. Yes, and even when it is wrongly pronounced by you "Chrestianus" (for you do not even know accurately the name you hate), it comes from sweetness and benignity. You hate, therefore, in the guiltless, even a guiltless name. But the special ground of dislike to the sect is, that it bears the name of its Founder... |
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08-04-2012, 05:20 PM | #54 | |
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The whole subject of of Tacitus was discussed in this thread, which is still open. If you think you can solve the problem, feel free to add to it. But be sure to read these course notes from the late Darrel Doughty explaining what is wrong about the passage. |
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08-04-2012, 05:47 PM | #55 | |
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We know that Tacitus Annals with Christus Magically Fell from the Sky because:
1. No writer of antiquity mentioned it for Hundreds of years. 2. Sulpitius Severus mentioned a passage similar to Tacitus Annals 15.44 and "Christus" is missing. Examine Sacred History 2.29 Quote:
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08-04-2012, 06:33 PM | #56 | ||
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Hi pinkvoy,
The discovery that the word was CHRESTIANOS and not CHRISTIANOS in the earliest known manuscript was made in 2011. The books you cite are now out of date and should not be relied upon in this matter. Quote:
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08-04-2012, 07:49 PM | #57 | |||
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Considering Tacitus calls Christians a superstition and he blames Pilate rather than the Jews for the crucifixion, is pretty hostile yet it is also a "forgery" b/c it resembles matry accounts of the second century. Pure speculation and this important passage to Jesus historicity is simply dismissed. Sounds more like polemics than serious scholarship. |
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08-04-2012, 07:51 PM | #58 | ||
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http://www.textexcavation.com/docume...hrestianos.pdf points out that it could be a scribal error, notes there is a dot above the "e" which suggests attempt by the writer/scribe to correct his spelling mistake and points out that in that manuscript, does not have the name Chrestus but Christus with no attempt to correct that spelling (i.e to Chrestus) Occam's razor. |
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08-04-2012, 08:51 PM | #59 | |
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You MUST understand that when "Christus" was INSERTED that the Fraudster had to change the word Latin word for "ChrEstians" to "ChrIstians". http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:MII.png But, you must realize that the Fraudster made a massive blunder, the "RI" combination in the Interpolated word is NOT the "RI" combination used in ALL other Latin words with "RI" combination in Tacitus Annals. In other words, the RI combinatination in the manipulated word for "Christians" is UNKNOWN in Tacitus Annals. Examine the "RI" combination for Ch--RI--stus and Tibe--RI--us. The forgery is BLATANT. |
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08-05-2012, 06:37 AM | #60 | ||
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Basing History on Fantastically Unlikely Coincidences
Hi Pinkvoy,
What you are saying that is that the Christian scribe who copied this passage got the spelling of the word "Christian" wrong. You are saying that In the only known instance of the spelling of the word "Christian" in the only known manuscipt of the only known text that you wish to use to prove the existence of Christians in 64 CE, the Christian scribe spelled the word "Christian" wrong. "Christian" and "Christ" would be the precise words that a Christian scribe would be most familiar with. The fact that in the whole book of tens of thousands of words, it is the only mention of Christians would certainly make the Scribe sit up and take notice and be most careful copying this word. We can say because of its rarity in the manuscript this was the word that the scribe was most likely to get right and was least likely to make an error on, and yet he got it wrong while getting the other words in the passage, at least, all right. We have one unbelievable fantastic coincidence here. Second, we know from Tertullian and other writers that apparently, some Roman writers did speak of someone named Chrestus who had followers. Thus you would have it that not only did the scribe make a spelling mistake, he made it so that it matched an actual name that we know about from Suetonius. This would not be the case if he got any of the other letters wrong. He could have miswritten any of the eleven letters in the word Christianos wrong. and come up with a word meaning nothing. He could have seen the iota as an Alpha or Beta or Gamma or any one of the 20 other letters of the Greek alphabet. Thus the chances of this error as opposed to any other single spelling error was 23 X 11 or 1 in 246. Thus we have two fantastic and unbelievable accidents 1. The scribe somehow managed to get the one word he was most familiar with and most should have gotten right to be wrong. 2. He somehow managed to make the mistake and just the mistake in such a way that it matched a known name from Suetonius. By Occam's razor or any other logic, we have to conclude that the scribe got the original word right and the "correction" was the change away from the original. One could say that this being simply a scribal error is almost as likely as Jesus curing a blind man with his spit around the same time as the Emperor Tiberius did the trick. If there were other manuscripts that did not have the change we could dismiss it, but because there is not, there is simply no way that this can be seriously taken as proof of the existence of one single Christian existing in 64 C.E. Warmly, Jay Raskin Quote:
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