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Old 07-10-2006, 08:07 AM   #91
Bede
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Robert,

I think we've taken this as far as we can. Enjoy your reading.

Best wishes

James
 
Old 07-10-2006, 08:35 AM   #92
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mountainman
Not one single fragment of papyrii on this list has been
carbon dated, and the dating of these fragments are all
by means of paleographic assessment, or handwriting
analysis.

Elsewhere in this thread above ...



That these fragments of text witness the existence
of pre-Nicaean NT is an inference of the handwriting analysis, and
of no other scientific assessment, at the present time.


Pete Brown
www.mountainman.com.au
I'm afraid you are going to get nowhere on this with Bede. Those who have access to such documents (and have taken one course in papyrology during their university sojourn) are considered experts in the field.

I just had a conversation on this topic over at alt.atheism (where your name was impugned -- not by me too). I'm sure Bede would concur along with Roger Pierce (one of the participants) and my main antagonist that if radio carbon dating was done for fragment in the third and fourth centuries BCE and for fragments of the sixth through eighth centuries CE and overlapped those dates of the paleographer's estimates with a 65% confidence level that was accurate enough. That was evidence enough.

To point out that there were no confirming evidence for the paleographer's assertions, it took a long drawn out discussion for the apologists to agree but then retort with So What?

If an "expert" in a field proclaims something even if our commentators do not understand the nature of the "evidence" it matters not one iota. Think about it. Their position is perfect. Those that have access to the documents (and in document identification photographs are not nearly good enough) are almost to a person, a member of some religious institution or a religious department of some university. It is almost certain where the evidence is going to lay for them. If, on rare occassion, someone is secular and has the same opportunity to examine the same documents and disagrees with them, a charge of sour grapes will be launched against them.

How many people actually get to examine any one original fragment or manuscript? Is it thousands? Is it hundreds? No, it is more like three or four.

In the aforementioned discussion I have learned a few things:

If paleographer's guesses overlap by within 100 years at the 65% confidence level, that means they were highly accurate and their guesses as to the non dated material of the first or second century CE material should be accepted as gospel.

That it is OK to ignore links to photographs and facsimilies found on the Internet because they come from biased secular sources. Instead giving a reference to some expert's assertion in a book or medium the average reader is not going to be able to obtain and not be able to validate for accuracy of the quote or photography.

That I am an idiot, liar, and nincompoop especially when my oponent desires to misread or misunderstand my comments, or if I give references to a secular (meaning atheist) website.

You will problably meet with the same outcome here except for two things: name calling is held to a minimum by moderators and there are more here that understand the issues and might agree with you.
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Old 07-10-2006, 01:06 PM   #93
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Quote:
Originally Posted by darstec
I'm afraid you are going to get nowhere on this with Bede. Those who have access to such documents (and have taken one course in papyrology during their university sojourn) are considered experts in the field.

I just had a conversation on this topic over at alt.atheism (where your name was impugned -- not by me too). I'm sure Bede would concur along with Roger Pierce (one of the participants) and my main antagonist that if radio carbon dating was done for fragment in the third and fourth centuries BCE and for fragments of the sixth through eighth centuries CE and overlapped those dates of the paleographer's estimates with a 65% confidence level that was accurate enough. That was evidence enough.

To point out that there were no confirming evidence for the paleographer's assertions, it took a long drawn out discussion for the apologists to agree but then retort with So What?

If an "expert" in a field proclaims something even if our commentators do not understand the nature of the "evidence" it matters not one iota. Think about it. Their position is perfect. Those that have access to the documents (and in document identification photographs are not nearly good enough) are almost to a person, a member of some religious institution or a religious department of some university. It is almost certain where the evidence is going to lay for them. If, on rare occassion, someone is secular and has the same opportunity to examine the same documents and disagrees with them, a charge of sour grapes will be launched against them.

How many people actually get to examine any one original fragment or manuscript? Is it thousands? Is it hundreds? No, it is more like three or four.

In the aforementioned discussion I have learned a few things:

If paleographer's guesses overlap by within 100 years at the 65% confidence level, that means they were highly accurate and their guesses as to the non dated material of the first or second century CE material should be accepted as gospel.

That it is OK to ignore links to photographs and facsimilies found on the Internet because they come from biased secular sources. Instead giving a reference to some expert's assertion in a book or medium the average reader is not going to be able to obtain and not be able to validate for accuracy of the quote or photography.

That I am an idiot, liar, and nincompoop especially when my oponent desires to misread or misunderstand my comments, or if I give references to a secular (meaning atheist) website.

You will problably meet with the same outcome here except for two things: name calling is held to a minimum by moderators and there are more here that understand the issues and might agree with you.
Thanks for the response Darstec.

This issue of paleographic dating being accepted as some form of
authority by the mainstream is totally unacceptable to the 21st CE.
This state of affairs is made critical due to the fact that it is known
that paleographic assessment will normally fail to detect a forgery,
and that the art of forgery is not beyond the possibility of fourth
century technology.

Earlier this year, I received an encouraging response from usenet
in the following discussion:
http://groups.google.com.au/group/so...365ac6b6?hl=en

Here is the relevant text ....

Quote:
Even if the owners of theses few fragments were openminded enough to
want to get at the truth, very few of the vast readership of these
newsgroups is aware that the fragments are very small. And to say that
such and such a fragment is from such and such a gospel/epistle might
be sheer coincidence. Having opportunities to examine both ancient
manuscripts and fragments I can assure you (but then you yourself know
this of your own experience) that reading those things is not straight
forward. Fragments are especially troublesome. Many times we read
that fragment X contains verses 20:5 -- 21:2 of such and such. What
closer examination shows is that about half an inch to an inch of every
column of both sides is missing; that letters drop in and out due to
fading or blotting; that letters are as easy to read as my brother's
handwriting (almost impossible); and that the passage is a generic one
with counterparts in both the Old Testament or literature in general.

But putting all that aside, while there might just possibly be enough
papyri to date, there might well not be enough ink though I doubt that
might be necessary even if possible. While Eusebius might be cognizant
of the difference of old writing papyrus, I doubt anyone back then
would worry about ink as long as it looked oldish. Modern document
forensics is probably not older that the 16th century when forgers
tried to duplicate old paint.


I was interested in your ideas of graphology, but having studied it for
quite some time (actually wrote a book on the subject) I don't think
judging a script by its era (as in 1920, 40s, 60s, etc) is distinct
from the personality of the writer. In other words a master forger can
forge a 1920s script very accurately leaving little or no script from
the 2005 era, yet leave his "personality" highly distinguishable in
both eras, and still be datable to the 1920 except by the very
discerning expert. I think paleography in many respects fails on this
bases. Too many experts look at the form but not the minutia of the
"personality". Keep in mind that many of these paleographic examiners
do not have labs equipped with the necessary tools. Some gradient
measuring devices alone cost as much as $32,000 dollars, not to mention
the photgraphic microscopes necessary to demonstrate these
characteristics. Most seem to be experts by proclamation [self
proclamation]. Problem is that the field is very narrow. Most
document examiners are too busy earning a living by dealing with more
or less contemporary writing and access to the old stuff is both
limited and income deficient.

And in regard to the inpugning of names as a response to my dialogue
rather than the option of reasoned discussion, I can only continue to
point out that this behaviour is consistent with the first christians.

Calumny was the literary weapon of Eusebius to deal with those groups
and tribes of people who, being distinct from the new and strange religion
of christianity in the fourth century, were fair game for mud-slinging.

Nothing much has changed with this 4th CE phenomenom in the intervening
centuries.

Best wishes, and thanks again for your objectivity.


Pete Brown
NAMASTE
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Old 07-10-2006, 02:47 PM   #94
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Ben C Smith
I notice that most of the specific examples listed on this thread involve making objective arguments to exclude a given text:

1. Gaius of Rome and the Alogi argued against the gospel and apocalypse of John.

2. Dionysius of Alexandria and Eusebius argued against the apocalypse of John.

3. Tertullian (and others) argued against the Acts of Paul.

4. The Muratorian canon argued against the Shepherd of Hermas.

Some of the more subjective arguments were also intended to exclude a given text:

1. Serapion argued against the gospel of Peter.

2. Some argued against the epistle of Jude.

The objective arguments to include a given book appear to depend almost completely upon usage by earlier fathers (the wider the geographical selection the better), and in a case like that of 2 Peter even that guideline was broken.

Do you find any evidence to overturn what Stephen wrote?



Or what Andrew wrote?



While it looks like you can be fairly certain that those books which were excluded were at least sometimes (maybe even usually) excluded on objective grounds, how certain can you be that those books which were included were included on objective grounds?

Ben.
I'm not certain at all, Ben, but that's not my claim in any event. My point, in rebutting Amaleq's rather hyperbolic claim, is that at least some objective analysis was carried out by early Christian scholars in evaluating the suitability of texts for inclusion into the canon. Amaleq claimed that he wasn't aware of any objective analysis on their part, and I think the evidence shows that's patently false.

I'm quite comfortable with the fact (and believe I suggested as much) that the objective analysis may have been more on the exclusionary end, while the inclusion relied on tradition (which is arguably objective) and such nonscholarly nonrational practices as prayer. Ultimately there is no rational way to determine that a text is "inspired", by definition. But since authenticity of authorship was arguably a sine qua non of inspiration, the resort to tradition to determine authorship, for people much closer in time and hence with access to various sources of information lost to us, I think the inclusionary end also has its objective elements.

But even if it didn't. It's helpful and I think well-established that that early Christian scholars winnowed out the bad texts through some objective process.
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Old 07-10-2006, 05:19 PM   #95
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Gamera
I'm not certain at all

inclusion relied on tradition (which is arguably objective) and such nonscholarly nonrational practices as prayer. Ultimately there is no rational way to determine that a text is "inspired", by definition. .
watch out, folks. Don't get hit by those moving goalposts.

And your reference to tradition as equivalent to objective analysis is not particularly persuasive.

I think your initial disclaimer of knowledge is sufficient.
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Old 07-10-2006, 06:34 PM   #96
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Gamera
My point, in rebutting Amaleq's rather hyperbolic claim...
It is bad form to try to take credit from those who, unlike yourself, provided a substantive response to my question. You have rebutted nothing.

While it is not true to take the extreme position that the early church fathers never applied reason to objective evidence in reaching their conclusions about authenticity, it is also not true that this was common or even necessarily their primary approach.

Quote:
Amaleq claimed that he wasn't aware of any objective analysis on their part, and I think the evidence shows that's patently false.
The evidence shows I was aware? You are confused. The evidence shows that my lack of awareness is entirely reasonable since examples are, contrary to an earlier assertion, "plentiful".
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