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Old 05-03-2006, 12:09 PM   #211
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  • Sign (birth of Immanuel) signifies ticking clock.
  • Immanuel reaches age of moral discernment signifies alarm bell.
  • When alarm goes off, remove prophecy from oven for delicious redemption of Jerusalem.
  • Amazing YHWH self-cleaning feature dispenses with charred remains of Ephraim and Damascus.
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Old 05-03-2006, 12:09 PM   #212
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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
The pregnancy wasn't supposed to be a magic trick, it was just pointed at as something for Ahaz to mark time with. Neither the pregnancy nor the child had any special per se significance to the prophecy. God said, "before that kid is of elementary school age your enemies will be gone." It's no different than saying "before this football game is over," or "before the snow melts."
That's the problem. Which kid? The result of what pregnancy? Young women get pregnant all the time.
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Old 05-03-2006, 12:12 PM   #213
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Originally Posted by Gamera
Young women get pregnant all the time, so another pregnancy seems an impossible marker, since it isn't recognizable as a sign.
Young women do get pregnant regularly, but they don't often give their children peculiar symbolic names, like "God is with us" and "spoil speeds, prey hastens." The peculiar name of the child is part of the sign.

The fact that Isaiah considers MSHB to be a sign and the mundane nature of his conception, plus the strong parallel to the Immanuel unit completely cripples your interpretation, in my view.
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Old 05-03-2006, 12:16 PM   #214
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Originally Posted by Gamera
That's the problem. Which kid? The result of what pregnancy?
You know, you can actually find that information in the story itself. The prophecy isn't left hanging.
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Old 05-03-2006, 12:25 PM   #215
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Originally Posted by Apikorus
  • Sign (birth of Immanuel) signifies ticking clock.
  • Immanuel reaches age of moral discernment signifies alarm bell.
  • When alarm goes off, remove prophecy from oven for delicious redemption of Jerusalem.
  • Amazing YHWH self-cleaning feature dispenses with charred remains of Ephraim and Damascus.
Here's is Isaiah's use of the word oth, sign. It always seems to involve something either odd or miraculous, not just an ordinary event used as a marker.

Isaiah 7:11 - "Ask a sign of the LORD your God; let it be deep as Sheol or high as heaven."

Isaiah 7:14 - Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Behold, a young woman shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name Imman'u-el.

Isaiah 19:20 - It [an altar and pillar in the desert] will be a sign and a witness to the LORD of hosts in the land of Egypt; when they cry to the LORD because of oppressors he will send them a savior, and will defend and deliver them.

Isaiah 20:3 - the LORD said, "As my servant Isaiah has walked naked and barefoot for three years as a sign and a portent against Egypt and Ethiopia,

Isaiah 66:19 - and I will set a sign among them. And from them I will send survivors to the nations, to Tarshish, Put, and Lud, who draw the bow, to Tubal and Javan, to the coastlands afar off, that have not heard my fame or seen my glory; and they shall declare my glory among the nations.

[by the way, I'm aware that Isaiah also uses oth to mean "banner" or "standard" but those are used literally and aren't appropriate to Isaiah 7.
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Old 05-03-2006, 12:30 PM   #216
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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
You know, you can actually find that information in the story itself. The prophecy isn't left hanging.
I can, but could a Jew in Isaiah's time? That's the issue. So the sign is a young lady will get pregnant and calls her son Immanuel (let's hope nobody else does). One way to resolve this is to determine how common the name was. If it was a common name, again, the sign is pretty useless.
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Old 05-03-2006, 12:33 PM   #217
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Originally Posted by Gamera
Here's is Isaiah's use of the word oth, sign. It always seems to involve something either odd or miraculous, not just an ordinary event used as a marker.
No, you missed Isa 8:18, which completely destroys your case, in my view. In fact, the use of otot in Isa 8:18 in describing his children strongly suggests that Immanuel is also his child, and Immanuel's mother is Isaiah's wife.

Please explain: what miraculous sign is associated with MSHB?

And what is miraculous about a naked barefoot man? It is unusual, as is a child named "God is with us" (suggest you check for appearances of immanuel in the Hebrew Bible), but not quite miraculous.

Another problem with your analysis is that "sign" is paired with other words like "witness" (eid) or "wonder" (mofeit), and it might be that the second term in these pairings is what connotes something miraculous, while ot just signifies the "marker" aspect.

I'm also unclear as to the nature of the sign in 66:19. What is it? The dispersal of refugees? Is that miraculous?

I'm puzzled why you don't respond directly to my simple yet rigorous analysis of Isa 7-8. To recapitulate, Isa 8:18 identifies that the prophet and his sons serve "for signs and for wonders in Israel." One of his sons, MSHB, is introduced in the very same chapter. His conception is completely ordinary -- explicitly so -- but his name, like that of Immanuel, is unique. (Isa 7:14 is the only instance of the name Immanuel in the Hebrew bible. It goes without saying that 8:3 is the only instance of the name MSHB in the Hebrew Bible as well.) What, then, is the miraculous "sign" associated with MSHB? The strong parallels between the MSHB unit in Isa 8:3-4 and the Immanuel unit in Isa 7:10-16 rule out any miraculous birth for Immanuel. Could you respond to these points, please?

By the way, I still agree with spin that the most compelling reading of Isa 7:10-16 has the woman already pregnant, which of course rules out any future miraculous conception.
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Old 05-03-2006, 12:36 PM   #218
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Originally Posted by Gamera
I can, but could a Jew in Isaiah's time?
If by "Isaiah's time," you mean the audience for the Book of Isaiah, then yes. Anyone who reads the story can know because the story TELLS you who it is.
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That's the issue. So the sign is a young lady will get pregnant and calls her son Immanuel (let's hope nobody else does). One way to resolve this is to determine how common the name was. If it was a common name, again, the sign is pretty useless.
Resolve what? What difference does it make how common the name is? The kid is born in the next chapter. There isn't any mystery about it and there isn't anything special about the kid himself.
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Old 05-03-2006, 02:18 PM   #219
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Originally Posted by Gamera
I really think this overlooks the messianic mentality of 1st century Judaism, in which messiah meant more than just the literal sense of being annointed. Clearly Israeli kings could undergo an annointing separating them out; but that doesn't seem to be the point of the messainic mentality where the annointing is meant metaphorically to define a special individual who brings salvation to Israel on some level or other. The messianic writings I quoted seem to be in that latter vein, and of course, all the NT literature relating to Jesus' messiahood falls under this later category.
You just moved the goal posts. Besides, it is you that wants to find something special about messiahship. You explicitly said:
Quote:
Originally Posted by Gamera
Because King David wasn't purported to be the messiah, whereas messianic literature is talking about the very messiah messianic Jews were looking for. But it might help if you gave the reference regarding David so we could examine the context.
and I showed that not only was the term messiah/christos used for David, it was also used for King Saul, Aaron's sons, other priests, bread (and could have shown the same of pillars, hills and donkeys). Why do you think Joshua, the anointed of the NT was a special case?

And if he wasn't a special case, why the need for a special birth? You are reading later ideas into earlier texts which is why the Gnostics disagreed with those proponents of what is now orthodoxy, and why they had to be eliminated.
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Old 05-03-2006, 02:31 PM   #220
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Originally Posted by Phlox Pyros
Yes, I read it, it just was not compelling to me. Supposed cognates in Aramaic that mean "strong" and in Palmyran meaning "harlot" seem a stretch, but you could go a long way in convincing me by actually posting a source for this claim. Even so, you still did not do what I asked in providing sources other than the Hebrew Bible from which to understand the word. The fact is that in every case but in Genesis, the word is translated into Greek as parthenos. You make a big deal of the few places where parthenos is used to translate something other than bethulah, but it appears that in the majority of its uses, parthenos translates bethulah.
What really needs to be said when you refuse to read what I wrote for what it says and for not dealing with the significance of the essential term?


Quote:
Originally Posted by Phlox Pyros
So what? These were separate books translated at different times, as you are likely fond of pointing out when the point suits you. The fact that it is a hapax legomenon in Isaiah could very well be significant.
So what? It shows that you don't understand a basic philological term.

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Originally Posted by Phlox Pyros
If it can be used of Josephus, then it can be used here, or else there is hypocrisy.
I'll admit you have tried to make this whacky analogy work for quite a while. It simply shows that you have no interest in either the text or context of the passages being analysed in each case.

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Originally Posted by Phlox Pyros
Rabbinic literature is too late to understand the word almah for what I am trying to discuss.
Why don't you buy a book about comparative linguistics? You need one.

Rabbinical usage of a term must be considered along with all the other indications, such as the cognates and the other biblical uses. These are quite illuminating, but you are too tunnelled into your outcome to do the work necessary to analyse the language.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Phlox Pyros
The LXX, as I have mentioned, and the fact that Isaiah consistently uses parthenos to translate bethulah. There is no textual evidence as you point out, but again and again, I point to the textual diversity during the period in which the LXX would have been translated.
This doesn't answer the question posed to you. (Besides, the translator's use of parQenos matches that of the rest of the Hebrew bible, which involves both N(R and (LMH as well as BTWLH.)

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Originally Posted by Phlox Pyros
Oh, I'll hang around, I guess until the moderators decide to enforce their rules. Naw...just a little longer though...
You missed the reference.


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