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|  02-28-2007, 07:04 AM | #1 | 
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				 |  Quick gospel question. 
			
			I just have a quick question, if the gospels were written after 70CE, how come they never mentioned the fall of Jerusalem?
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|  02-28-2007, 07:16 AM | #2 | 
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|  02-28-2007, 07:37 AM | #3 | 
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				 |   
			
			They mention it?
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|  02-28-2007, 07:45 AM | #4 | 
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|  02-28-2007, 08:14 AM | #5 | |
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				 |   Quote: 
 That said, the prophecy placed in the mouth of Jesus answers for the evangalist's audience the question: "Why wouldn't the Son of God have known about the imminent destruction and why wouldn't he have warned his followers?" | |
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|  02-28-2007, 08:23 AM | #6 | 
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			"Mark" 12.1-11 Also in "Mark" there is the allegory of the vineyard where each element represents something. Such as: the owner = god the tenants= the Jews the vineyard=Israel the servants=the prophets the beloved son = JC "What will the owner [god] of the vineyard [Israel] do? He will come and destroy the tenants ["destruction of Jerusalem et al''] and give the vineyard to others [followers of JC] .....more" cheers yalla | 
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|  02-28-2007, 09:08 AM | #7 | 
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|  02-28-2007, 03:44 PM | #8 | 
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|  02-28-2007, 04:51 PM | #9 | |
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				 |   Quote: 
 In addition, the author could have commented on it, saying something to the effect that "and in fact Jesus' prophesy came true, proving once again he was divine." But there's none of that. Just a vague prophesy about the destruction of a city, in the vague way prophets often predict the ruin of city the rejects a prophet. I think assuming Jesus was refering to the Roman sack of Jerusalem may be an ex post facto ex post facto. | |
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|  02-28-2007, 06:34 PM | #10 | 
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