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Old 02-15-2011, 08:37 AM   #21
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Originally Posted by Juststeve
My response was directed to the thread starter's preposterous assertion that "According to Acts, Jesus Taught the Apostles Nothing". Its the title of the thread. I say preposterous because in what some term the preamble the author specifically refers to an earlier work in which Jesus' teachings are covered...
Hi Steve,

Repetition is one of the main features of most educational systems. I know it will bore everyone else, on the forum, to tears, but please, for the sake of one not yet enlightened, can you identify "Jesus' teachings", wherever they may exist?

I am laboring under the probably misinformed, and mistaken impression, that there are NO teachings identified as those of Jesus.
NONE
ZERO,
Zilch.

I cannot find a document, for which it is claimed, JC put quill to papyrus to outline his "teachings".
Ditto for euphemisms, aphorisms, or lectures.

What I encounter about JC, his life, his work, his claims, his accomplishments, is merely hearsay from "Paul", or the four gospels, all of them documents written by unknown authors, at an unknown date, of unknown purity, (or even worse, known imperfections, interpolations, deletions, omissions and redactions).....

Mingled among these ancient papyri, I have thus far located exactly zero communications from JC himself, so please teach me, where can I find JC's instructional guidelines to potential proselytizers. I have no idea at present, about JC, his life, or his "teachings". To me, there is no genuine information available.

I do not agree with you, that Jay's thread is preposterous. Strikes me as very reasonable, well written, and non-confrontational.

avi
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Old 02-15-2011, 08:44 AM   #22
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Avi:

The teachings of Jesus referred to in the book of Acts are those set forth in the Gospel Of Luke. That's where you can find them, in the Gospel of Luke.

Steve
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Old 02-15-2011, 10:05 AM   #23
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Hi Juststeve,

Thanks for this insight into the author's thinking. Your supposition that the author has already written about the teachings of Jesus in his version of the Gospel and therefore doesn't want to be redundant and repeat any of them is quite interesting.

If we see the introduction as part of an actual letter to the "most excellent Theophilus" then this makes sense.

However, these works are not in the form of actual ancient letters. According to "Ancient Letters & The New Testament" (or via: amazon.co.uk) by Hans-Josef Klauck (Baylor University Press, 2006, an English translation of the 1998 Die antike Briefliteratur und das Neue Testament: Ein Lehr- und Arbeitsbuch.) all genuine ancient letters from this time period contain a:

1) prescript (consisting of three parts 1) superscriptio or superscription, sender’s name in the nominative, 2) adscriptio or adscription, addressee’s name in the dative, and 3) salutatio or salutation, greeting in the infinitive

2) proem such si vales, bene est, ego valeo (If you are well, it is well. I also am well).

3) main body of the letter, which is usually several pages, but may much longer (although, I am not sure if any are as long as Acts).

4) letter closing, usually consisting of a closing greeting or wish which may be of three forms:
(1) Direct greeting of the sender to the addressee, using a firstperson indicative: “I greet you”
(2) Request from the sender to the addressee to greet a third person, using a second-person imperative: “Greet X for me”
(3) Forwarded greetings from a third person (or group) to the addressee, using a third-person indicative: “X also greets you”
Since the Gospel of Luke and Acts do not follow this standard form, (which all the epistles in the New Testament do) we may take it that the opening of both are meant to indicate a literary device rather than an actual letter. In the same way, the title "based on a true story" at the beginning of a movie is a cinematic device. It does not indicate that the movie is a documentary recording actual historical events. Rather, it indicates only that some events in the movies are recreations of some historical events.

If, indeed, the writer is not writing for the unknown Theophilus, but is writing for a general audience, it seems unlikely that fear of redundancy is the actual motive for the writer not repeating any of Jesus' teachings in the work.

In the case of true disciples, we seem to always find the work of the masters/teachers. For example, in Plato we find the sayings of Socrates, in Aristotle, we find the ideas and sayings of Plato, if only to refute them. In Lenin, we find the writings of Marx quoted extensively, and in Mao, we find the sayings of Lenin quoted extensively. It is the rare writing of the Muslim scholar when writing a history of Islam that doesn't quote from the Koran (Muhammad) and the rare Buddhist when writing the history of his movement who does not quote the Buddha. So I do not think it is unnatural to expect some teachings of Jesus to be included in a work on the history of the Christian movement after Jesus died.

What is surprising is that the apostles are not portrayed as students of Jesus who go around quoting him and debating over the meaning of his many parables. Instead they are portrayed as Jesus Clones. They have the Holy Ghost in them like Jesus, they travel around performing miracles like Jesus, they attack the Jewish laws like Jesus, and are persecuted like Jesus. They do this with virtually no reference to Jesus outside of chapter one and no reference to his teachings. The Paul and the Peter sections could stand on there own and be stories even if the gospel stories had never been written.

This suggests to me that we are wrong for looking at the gospels as the architype for the apostle stories, but the gospels themselves may be copies of an Apostle architype. In other words, Peter and Paul may not be clones of Jesus, but the Jesus character is a clone of Peter and Paul and John "Persecuted Apostle" stories.

Think of it as gangster movies and "the Godfather" (Coppola, 1972). There were many great gangster movies before "the Godfather," "Public Enemy," "Scarface" and "White Heat" for example. However "The Godfather" synthesized different elements from different earlier gangster movies into something spectacularly different. After the success of "the Godfather," there were a multitude of gangster movies over the next 35 years that based themselves on "the Godfather". To those without a knowledge of cinema history, one could very well imagine that "the Godfather" was the first gangster movie. When one sees a film like Johnny Depp's "Public Enemies" (Mann, 2008) which goes back to earlier gangster films for its style and ignors the influence of "the Godfather," it seems incredibly original and fresh.

Warmly,

Philosopher Jay



Quote:
Originally Posted by Juststeve View Post
I find nothing in the least bit remarkable about the lack of Jesus’ teachings in the book of Acts. Luke had already addressed Jesus’ teachings. The book is addressed to the same Theophilus that his Gospel was addressed to, and reminds him that in his earlier work he described Jesus’ teachings. Perhaps he didn’t see the need to be so redundant as to rehash the teaching for the second time. Why would anyone expect him to?

Steve
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Old 02-15-2011, 10:58 AM   #24
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... There is of course the ad hoc objection that the "preambles" to both Luke and Acts were added later by some conspiratorial cabal. Even were that correct the assertion that "According to Acts, Jesus Taught the Apostles Nothing" would still be preposterous.

Steve
Biblical scholars do not talk about conspiratorial cabals, but they do commonly conjecture that Luke and Acts may be based on earlier materials assembled by a later editor, who added the preambles.

If this is the case, it makes sense to look at Acts as a separate document.
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Old 02-15-2011, 02:14 PM   #25
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Biblical scholars do not talk about conspiratorial cabals,
This depends on how you want to define "biblical scholars". Jean_Hardouin (1646-1729) perhaps coined the term 'the impious crew', or 'maudite cabale'.
Not the sort of Biblical scholar I had in mind.

Quote:
Edwin Johnson refers to "a mass of forgeries labelled Eusebius".
One forger is not a conspiratorial cabal.

Quote:
Hermann Detering postulates a 2nd century "Redaction Team".
This is more in line with what mainstream NT scholarship would find to be in the realm of possibilites.

Quote:
Joseph Atwill claims the gospels are texts deliberately created to trick Messianic Jews into worshipping the Roman Emperor 'in disguise'. Francesco Carotta claims Jesus was Julius Caesar, who was elevated to the status of Imperial God, Divus Julius, after his violent death, and that the cult that surrounded him dissolved as Christianity surfaced.
Neither of these gentlemen are mainstream scholars.

Quote:
The opening chapter of Jay Raskin's book (or via: amazon.co.uk) is entitled "Eusebius the Master Forger" may not discuss conspiratorial cabals but it certainly sets the groundwork for one.
I don't think you read that carefully enough.

Quote:
Quote:
but they do commonly conjecture that Luke and Acts may be based on earlier materials assembled by a later editor, who added the preambles.
And who perhaps also systematically implemented the nomina sacra in the Greek texts.
Nomina Sacra were just a shorthand used by scribes. Give it a rest.

This is the sort of mainstream scholar I had in mind:

Quote:
In any study of Luke and Acts, their unity is a fundamental and illuminating axiom. Among all the problems of New Testament authorship no answer is so universally agreed upon as is the common authorship of these two volumes. Each is addressed in its opening words to the same Theophilus, the second volume refers explicitly to the first, and in innumerable points of style the Greek diction of each shows close identity with the other. Whatever their difference in subject matter and sources, each volume is in its present form the work of the same ultimate editor . . .
Cadbury, Henry J. The Making of Luke-Acts (or via: amazon.co.uk), p 8-9. New York: Macmillan, 1958.
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Old 02-16-2011, 03:09 AM   #26
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Default Upon further reflection...

Thinking further, about the controversy regarding nomina sacra, this thought passed through, on its way to oblivion:

Is it possible that there is a link between Jay's OP, and Pete's righteous objection to the casual dismissal of the controversy regarding the role and significance of nomina sacra?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Philospher Jay
According to Acts, Jesus Taught the Apostles Nothing
What if the reason for writing nothing about JC is related to a taboo against writing about persons who have attained lofty positions?

Is there any evidence from two millennia ago, of deliberate omission of written details, regarding persons of great significance, to avoid premature death....

Quote:
Originally Posted by Wikipedia
Naming taboo is a cultural taboo against speaking or writing the given names of exalted persons in China and neighboring nations in the ancient Chinese cultural sphere.

The naming taboo of the state discouraged the use of the emperor's given name and those of his ancestors. For example, during the Qin Dynasty, Qin Shi Huang's given name Zheng was avoided, and the first month of the year "Zheng Yue" (the administrative month) was rewritten into "Zheng Yue" (the upright month) and furthermore renamed as "Duan Yue" (the proper/upright month). The character was also pronounced with a different tone (zhèng to zhēng) to avoid any similarity. Generally, ancestor names going back to seven generations were avoided. The strength of this taboo was reinforced by law; transgressors could expect serious punishment for writing an emperor's name without modifications. In 1777, Wang Xihou in his dictionary criticized the Kangxi dictionary and wrote the Qianlong Emperor's name without leaving out any stroke as required. These disrespects resulted in his and his family's executions and confiscation of their property. (emphasis avi--> potential correlation with nomina sacra)
Apart from avoiding injury/death, there have been numerous studies to show the effect of death on subsequent reference to individuals. The field of inquiry is thanatology. Point is, perhaps the absence of reference to JC's notable accomplishments in Acts, and the use of nomina sacra, represent two facets of the same behaviour: writing in a style commensurate with respect/fear for the "recently" deceased "messiah".

avi
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Old 02-16-2011, 06:55 AM   #27
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Originally Posted by Juststeve View Post
There is of course the ad hoc objection that the "preambles" to both Luke and Acts were added later by some conspiratorial cabal. Even were that correct the assertion that "According to Acts, Jesus Taught the Apostles Nothing" would still be preposterous.
OK. It matters little to my take on Luke and Acts whether their preambles are authentic in the sense of having been included in the original versions. And I agree that the thread title, so worded, is erroneous.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Juststeve View Post
Now to get to your question, yes, I would be scratching my head. The document is addressed to a specific person, Theophilus, and specifically references an earlier correspondence in which the teachings of Jesus were dealt with. That having been covered previously I would be surprised if he re-hashed them.
Very well. I'll have a followup question, but first I want to make very sure I'm understanding you correctly.

What I understand: Assuming that Peter must have said something explicit about Jesus' teaching on at least some occasions, and assuming Luke must have known that, we should reasonably expect him to have omitted any reference to Peter's saying such things because he did not want to repeat anything that he could have expected Theophilus to already know. Have I got that right?
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Old 02-16-2011, 08:37 AM   #28
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Doug:

I would argue the following but no further:

1. I would not expect Luke to reiterate what he said in the gospel of Luke with respect to Jesus' teachings.

2. I would not expect Luke to quote Peter for the purpose of reiterating the teachings of Jesus nor would I expect him remove references to the teachings of Jesus from what he was quoting from Peter for other purposes.

3. I don't know how much Peter spoke about the teachings of Jesus nor how much of what Peter said was quoted in Acts. Either not much or Peter was quite reticent. Therefore I don't think we can conclude much about the absence of Jesus' teachings in Acts.

To me the more interesting question is why are the teachings of Jesus so absent from conservative Christianity today?

Steve
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Old 02-16-2011, 08:51 AM   #29
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Why is this an issue?
Because it is a unique characteristic Greek convention that is exhibited almost universally across all the earliest Greek manuscripts and papyri, and the question about the evidence itself deserves a careful explanation.
This does not answer the question.

Quote:
That's a novel off-the-cuff idea but does it stand up? By what transmission and authority was this convention then universally used throughout the entire ROman Empire, not only by the orthodox, but also by the Gnostic heretics?
That's like asking by what authority each of those scribes spelled Greek words the same way.

Quote:
And why didn't Eusebius menion this small issue and name the scribe who invented the system? Do you think Eusebius knew who invented these unique and characteristic scribal conventions?...
I don't think that Eusebius knew or cared.

Quote:
Quote:
And how many sources have you read besides bible.ca?
Quite a few. Some scholars conjecture this single redactor was Paul.
Some scholars? How did they avoid the commonplace conclusion that Paul himself was barely literate and used a scribe to record his epistles?
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Old 02-16-2011, 09:23 AM   #30
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Doug:
...

To me the more interesting question is why are the teachings of Jesus so absent from conservative Christianity today?

Steve
That's an interesting question, probably outside the scope of this forum. It involves the history of the religious right in this country, including the Council for National Policy, the somewhat strange history and influence of Richard Mellon Scaife, Christian Reconstructionism, the entrepreneurial Christianity of Jerry Fallwell.
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