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Old 11-02-2006, 08:59 AM   #21
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Originally Posted by Mesa Mike View Post
These people were exceedingly wicked, even by ancient near east standards.
Google is your friend.
So genocide is fine.....so long as you only commit it against the wicked?

Because they were wicked and slaughtered their own infants to their gods its OK to slaughter them, INCLUDING THEIR INFANTS, down to the last one?

A strange logic.

Christians like to claim atheism leads to moral relativism. Yet I so frequently hear christians defending genocide and the slaughter of infants. Strangely enough, despite the so-called lack of basis for morality in atheism I never hear atheists defending such things. Just the opposite.
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Old 11-02-2006, 09:14 AM   #22
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Originally Posted by Mesa Mike View Post
These people were exceedingly wicked, even by ancient near east standards.
Google is your friend.
Several somewhat related questions ....

Who according to the bible survived the great flood ...
How were false god's and false worship introduced , please site scriptural references ...

Do you think that the colonization of the " New World" was divine judgement against the wicked people's of those lands ???
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Old 11-02-2006, 09:37 AM   #23
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Perhaps its worth noting that some scholars consider the possiblity that Abraham really sacrificed Isaac in the "original" story.

I'm not sure how to interpret this, but the story ends by saying: "Then Abraham returned to his servants, and they set off together for Beersheba. And Abraham stayed in Beersheba."

This seems like "Two men enter, one man leaves". Notice that its said "Abraham returned", not "Abraham and Isaac returned" or "they returned". Perhaps this is a remnant from that "original" story?

Or, perhaps, this is some ancient literary convention (something like those "we" passages in Acts).
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Old 11-03-2006, 08:11 AM   #24
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What do you imagine Google will tell us, other than "a whole bunch of Christians with web pages think that these people were exceedingly wicked"?

Exodus 13:2 and Leviticus 27:28-29 indicate that God commanded the dedication of every firstborn child to him, and that those so dedicated were to be put to death.
Leviticus and Exodus contradict each other.

RSV:

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Lev 27:26 'However, a firstborn among animals, which as a firstborn belongs to the LORD, no man may consecrate it; whether ox or sheep, it is the LORD'S.
Lev 27:27 'But if {it is} among the unclean animals, then he shall redeem it according to your valuation and add to it one-fifth of it; and if it is not redeemed, then it shall be sold according to your valuation.
Lev 27:28 'Nevertheless, anything which a man sets apart to the LORD out of all that he has, of man or animal or of the fields of his own property, shall not be sold or redeemed. Anything devoted to destruction is most holy to the LORD.
Lev 27:29 'No one who may have been set apart among men shall be ransomed; he shall surely be put to death.
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Quote:
Exd 13:12 you shall set apart to the LORD all that first opens the womb. All the firstlings of your cattle that are males shall be the LORD's.
Exd 13:13 Every firstling of an ass you shall redeem with a lamb, or if you will not redeem it you shall break its neck. Every first-born of man among your sons you shall redeem.
"Redeem." Which seems to mean, sacrifice an animal when your first son is born. Obviously different Hebrews had a problem with this issue.

" anything which a man sets apart to the LORD out of all that he has, of man or animal or of the fields of his own property, shall not be sold or redeemed."

This does not really seem to indicate a family member. I am sure the "Oral Torah" has a lot to say on the fudging of this difficulty.
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Old 11-03-2006, 08:14 AM   #25
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Originally Posted by moonwatcher View Post
So genocide is fine.....so long as you only commit it against the wicked?

Because they were wicked and slaughtered their own infants to their gods its OK to slaughter them, INCLUDING THEIR INFANTS, down to the last one?
Once again, the correct translation, "passed through fire" does not indicate slaughter or sacrifice, contrary to "The Message." :rolleyes Passing through seems to indicate coming out the other side, hm?

Quote:
A strange logic.

Christians like to claim atheism leads to moral relativism. Yet I so frequently hear christians defending genocide and the slaughter of infants. Strangely enough, despite the so-called lack of basis for morality in atheism I never hear atheists defending such things. Just the opposite.
Ha! Good point.
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Old 11-04-2006, 02:23 AM   #26
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Once again, the correct translation, "passed through fire" does not indicate slaughter or sacrifice ... Passing through seems to indicate coming out the other side, hm?
Yes but, in a religious context, "the other side" could mean anything, couldn't it? Hades, paradise, some xxth heaven type holding station somewhere inbetween ... etc.

Otherwise, what do you feel the phrase *does* mean then? (I'm guessing, "fire" as some sort of symbolism for something, unkess 'singeing people a bit' was some sort of obscure biblical punishment I missed!? )

[Sorry, I'm tired ... you addressed that in your first post Magdlyn ... although I'm not sure about passing between fires/ passing over fire as an alternative, doesn't the text actually say "passing through fire [sing]"?]
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Old 11-04-2006, 05:01 AM   #27
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I read recently that ''passing through fire etc'' was construed as child sacrifice until fairly recently.
This view was then 'revised' and considered to refer to an initiation ritual and not sacrifice.
Then this view in turn was revised in the light of the discovery of 1000s of urns containing the remains of juveniles and, separately I presume, animals.
The child sacrifice view is back in favour.
All the above relates to Phoenician and Carthaginian religion.
Just reporting, I have no idea myself.
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Old 11-04-2006, 05:08 AM   #28
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Yes but, in a religious context, "the other side" could mean anything, couldn't it? Hades, paradise, some xxth heaven type holding station somewhere inbetween ... etc.
The Hebrews did not have a concept of an afterlife until contact with the Persians and Zoroastrianism, when Persia overtook Babylon in the 6th century CE. And it was still rudimentary when the book of Daniel was written in the 2nd century.

Quote:
Otherwise, what do you feel the phrase *does* mean then? (I'm guessing, "fire" as some sort of symbolism for something, unkess 'singeing people a bit' was some sort of obscure biblical punishment I missed!? )

[Sorry, I'm tired ... you addressed that in your first post Magdlyn ... although I'm not sure about passing between fires/ passing over fire as an alternative, doesn't the text actually say "passing through fire [sing]"?]
I am not saying there is no evidence there was ever child sacrifice in the Levant or northern Africa. However, the references to to it in the Hebrew Bible are so obscure and vague, there is no way to draw a conclusion simply from them. Life was hard back then and kids probably often died before age 5, just as they do in many nations today. It woud be counter-intuitive to have people killing their own kids left and right. Maybe it was done now and then in desparation, to "appease" the gods.

(But as far as fire being used as a symbolic purification, well, even John the Baptist said the one coming after him would baptize with fire, didn't he?)

The letters "MLK" which appear in the Hebrew Bible may not even refer to a god at all. MLK does mean king, but may also have other meanings, such a immolation.

However, warring factions often accuse each other of child sacrifices, orgies and other questionable practices, to this day.

The Wikipedia article on Moloch is interesting.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Moloch

I'd say the jury is still out.
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Old 11-04-2006, 05:38 AM   #29
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I'd say the jury is still out.
Why don't we just let the talking snake be the judge?
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Old 11-04-2006, 06:17 AM   #30
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Why don't we just let the talking snake be the judge?
:notworthy: :rolling:

I think this is the first time I have seen you make a straight foward joke ....
very good ...
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