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12-05-2010, 08:39 PM | #91 | |||
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My claim is that this ration was effectively zero, and that it was a miraculous religious revolution !!! Constantine imported his own "christians" from Rome and the West. It was all new for the non christian Alexandrian's and Antiochians c.324/325 CE. Many immediately subscribed to Constantine's new traditions, especially after torture (See Lane-Fox on Constantne's rescripts at Antioch 324/325 CE) Quote:
Pachomius's Codes tangent You seem to enjoy codes stephan. What do you know about the solution to the series of Greek letter codes employed by Pachomius, perhaps carried on by Zozimus, in his segregation of the masses of people in his monsatic communities, who also fled Alexandria and elsewhere. From what I have read, nobody has yet explained the code system of Pachomius. |
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12-05-2010, 09:54 PM | #92 | |||||||
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The eyewitness excuse for the variations in the gospels is part of Protestant rationalism, the idea that the Bible is a reliable record by the standards of modern legal or journalistic principles. Quote:
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You are not Humpty Dumpty. You cannot just redefine terms to mean what you want. If you want to say that there is no corroboration for the claims in Eusebius, you can just say that in plain English. (But in the case of Abercius, you continued to reject Eusebius even when there was some corroboration of his claims.) Quote:
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12-06-2010, 12:11 AM | #93 |
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And what makes this theory even kookier is that there are all these Church Fathers from the late second century to the time of Constantine who represent witnesses to the evolution of the concept of New Testament canon. This is why I keep stressing that Pete just isn't simply familiar enough with the writings of the Church Fathers to make such a sweeping pronouncement as his fourth century conspiracy theory.
The concept of the four gospels EVOLVES over time. At the time of Irenaeus (the guy who introduces the quaternion) it is clear that what is meant is that the four together make one gospel. It is almost an impossible concept to get one's head around (like the Trinity which wasn't as evolved in Irenaeus's writings) but 'the Gospel' in the singular was Matthew, then Mark, then Luke and then John. Trobisch has argued that John 21:25 ("Jesus did many other things as well. If every one of them were written down, I suppose that even the whole world would not have room for the books that would be written.") was not the conclusion of John but of the four. If you look at Clement of Alexandria's writings he almost never refers to the individual gospels by name. He usually cites from 'Scripture' 'the gospel' etc. By the time Origen comes along it's 'Luke said this' 'Matthew wrote that' again an evolution in the way material is approached. I think that by the time of the fourth century the general bullshit about four gospels being one gospel written by the Holy Spirit was uttered in public but the entire approach was more rational. My point here (to avoid cutting up Pete for at least one post) is to note how the different each generation of Christian commentators were and how this couldn't be faked. I think the gospels eventually became more like 'Matthew's writing' 'Peter's writing' 'Luke's writing' and 'John's writing' but originally there was still a mystical idealism associated with the collection which was never duplicated again in later generations. |
12-06-2010, 06:49 AM | #94 | |
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Yeah, but not much time. Just the time it book Eusebius to write them. |
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12-06-2010, 07:45 AM | #95 | |
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Doug I don't know what to say about that. I don't want to attack Pete again. His theory is wrong. There is too much nuance in the writings of the Church Fathers, the way opinions change from generation to generation and within the lifespan of an author to take that claim seriously.
Toto's point about Eusebius writing his Ecclesiastical History before the end of the third century is worth investigating further. There is a book called 'Eusebius and Constantine (or via: amazon.co.uk)' which provides a reference on how Quote:
His attempt to clean up his narrative in the Historia, however, was not completely successful. In his discussion of Licinius' character, Eusebius would Eusebius would appear to be referring to the division of the empire at the time of the Settlement of Serdica. To understand how serious a blow this information is to Pete's theory just consider the dates for Probus (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Marcus_Aurelius_Probus). Marcus Aurelius Probus was Emperor from 276 - 282. There can be no doubt about this original edition of Ecclesiastical History. It is well known (except to Pete apparently). Are we now suiggesting that Eusebius and SEVERAL Emperors plotted the 'creation' of a Christian Church as far back as the year 280 CE? This is getting crazier by the minute. |
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12-06-2010, 08:26 AM | #96 |
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I wonder why Eusebius, who was not a Latinist, could write Mark with a distinct Latin bias? There are phrases that don't make too much sense in Greek but do make sense as Latin idioms. In Mk 2:23 we hear of that the disciples began to "make way", a phrase that implies the construction of a road in Greek, but works just fine in Latin, "iter facere". Another idiom which doesn't work well in Greek, 15:15, Pilate wished to "make complete" the crowd, ie Latin "satis facere" ("satisfy"). Or again a frequent "the is" literally from Greek is an idiom in Latin "hoc est" ("that is"), used for exaplanations.
So let's consider two of these explanations: Mk 12:42 "two leptas, that is, a quadrans", here are two Greek coins explained in terms of a Roman coin, and Mk 15:16, "the palace, that is, the praetorium", explaining a Greek building in terms of a Roman one. Why would a Greek speaking audience need clarifications useful for Romans? From Rome there were two types of Phoenicians, Syro-phoenicians (from the Levant) and Lybo-phoenicians (from Carthaginian lands). In Mk 7:25 there is a Syrophoenician woman (who becomes a Canaanite woman in Mt 15:22). Even calling the supporters of Herod, "Herodians" points to a Latin derivation. The signs we have in Mark are of a Greek text written for a Roman audience, yet we are being asked to think that Eusebius, the non-Latinist, could write with a Roman bias at a time when Rome was becoming a backwater. And why would he need to have done so? One can imagine that he was writing for posterity or that he simply wasn't that able a writer and that he just didn't have the requisite linguistic skills to pull off such a work, writing simplistic Greek so different from his own wordy style, nor would he have had any good reason to include such a manifestation. One could then talk about the ways Matthew and Luke improved on Mark from conflicting traditions. Did Joseph live in Nazara, as per Luke? or did he move there as per Matt 2:23? Why does Lk have a sermon on a plain while Mt has the sermon on the mount? Why does Luke have one feeding of the multitudes, rather than Mt & Mk's two feedings? These are just some of the traces of conflicting traditions rather than works written by the same guy(s). Why do we get indications of "churches" in the accepted Pauline works but a single institution "the church" in the Pastoral letters? Why are the christian texts trinitarian? I can see how the claim that Constantine had the texts written fits any of the facts. spin |
12-06-2010, 08:46 AM | #97 | |
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We are not dealing with law, we are dealing with science. If someone has a hypotheiss that all swans are white, the observation of a black swan would falsify the hypothesis that all swans are white. If someone has a hypothesis that Christianity was created when Constantine was Emperor of Rome, then the observation of Christian activity prior to Constantine would falsify the hypothesis that Constantine and Eusebius created Christianity. |
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12-06-2010, 08:50 AM | #98 |
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As you know there are a number of Patristic writers who do claim that Mark was first written in Latin at Rome. I think bar Hebraeus is one.
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12-06-2010, 09:56 AM | #99 | ||
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spin |
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12-06-2010, 10:11 AM | #100 | ||
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As I just noted most scholars think that Eusebius DID NOT write most of the section on Mani.
Just for interest sake here is the pre-Constantine ending of Eusebius's original Ecclesiastical History in what is now the end of Book Seven. I will start with the section which describes the end of Aurelian's reign (Aurelian is usually credited with introducing the celebration of Christmas): Quote:
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