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Old 09-29-2011, 08:59 AM   #21
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if the gospels were allegories, why didn't the writer play that up?
Gosh, I don’t know.

Maybe because the tradition of gospel writing involved making subtle allusions to earlier scripture. Not blatant ones.

It was so subtle that Luke didn't seem to pick it up?
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Old 09-29-2011, 11:36 AM   #22
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Is this an argument tipped in favor of history over allegory/fiction?
Nope.

Whether Jesus chose twelve actual men, or the NT writers imagined twelve disciples, 12 is a magic number. (Not all of the information at that link may be accurate, but the essential idea is correct, I believe.)

The twelve tribes if Israel and the 12 sons of Jacob, the 12 signs of the Zodiac, and various other 12's may be related in some way; if any of them are historical, it would be a coincidence.
I know that 12 is a 'special' number, but for Jews I would think the primary significance is the 12 tribes of Israel. The idea would be to have a disciple representing each of the tribes of Israel--Jesus the savior of all Jewish people. In addition ALL of Israel is represented when the disciples go 'to all nations' to proclaim the good news.

But, there is no such follow-up and we can conclude that not all 12 tribes were represented because of the brothers. Why even have brothers if it is all made-up? Why have a 'Zealot' without using that to discuss the Zealot movement? Why does GJohn mention such seemingly meaningless 'facts' as Philip being from Bethsaida, the same place Peter and his brother Andrew were from? If orthodoxy created the 'twelve' at a later date, why do we have such odd data about them?

Since would-be Messiahs of the time Judas the Galilean and the Egyptian prophet had hundreds/thousands of followers, is it hard to believe that Jesus would have been able to hand-pick 12 of his own disciples from among his own followers?
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Old 09-29-2011, 12:01 PM   #23
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I know that 12 is a 'special' number, but for Jews I would think the primary significance is the 12 tribes of Israel. The idea would be to have a disciple representing each of the tribes of Israel--Jesus the savior of all Jewish people. In addition ALL of Israel is represented when the disciples go 'to all nations' to proclaim the good news.

But, there is no such follow-up and we can conclude that not all 12 tribes were represented because of the brothers.
By Jesus' time, the 12 separate tribes were lost in the mists of history. Picking a physical representative of each tribe would make the narrative clearly unhistorical.

But you still don't have any idea if the symbolism came from a historical Jesus or the narrator.

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Why even have brothers if it is all made-up? Why have a 'Zealot' without using that to discuss the Zealot movement? Why does GJohn mention such seemingly meaningless 'facts' as Philip being from Bethsaida, the same place Peter and his brother Andrew were from? If orthodoxy created the 'twelve' at a later date, why do we have such odd data about them?

...
There are numerous instances where the Zealots are referred to indirectly. The gospels are not essays and do not "discuss" much. And Bethsaida means "house of fishing," although I think there are other possible symbolic meanings. The actual city has never been located with any certainty.

The inclusion of incidental details is not an indication of historicity.
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Old 09-29-2011, 12:14 PM   #24
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According to my Oxford Bible Commentary, the 12 disciples would certainly have been seen to represent the 12 tribes.
Matthew and Luke make explicit the function of the twelve disciples as enthroned apocalyptic judges of the twelve tribes of Israel (Mt 19:28/Lk 22:30).

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Old 09-29-2011, 12:15 PM   #25
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Important point of reference = תרי עשר‎, Trei Asar, "The Twelve"

In standard Hebrew usage the name of the portion of writings incorporating the so-called 'minor prophets' (which appear before the 'major prophets' in the LXX) Hosea, Joel, Amos, Obadiah, Jonah, Micah, Nahum, Habakkuk, Zephaniah, Haggai, Zechariah, Malachi.

Interestingly there seems to be some indication that the disciples were also referenced as 'the twelve' in many earlier traditions. Origen mentions a ους Δώδεκα Ευαγγελιον in his Homilies of Luke which was an old non-canonical gospel.

Whoever was promoting the existence of 'the twelve' was clearly part of or anticipated the so-called 'New Prophesy' movement.
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Old 09-29-2011, 01:02 PM   #26
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Important point of reference = תרי עשר‎, Trei Asar, "The Twelve"

In standard Hebrew usage the name of the portion of writings incorporating the so-called 'minor prophets' (which appear before the 'major prophets' in the LXX) Hosea, Joel, Amos, Obadiah, Jonah, Micah, Nahum, Habakkuk, Zephaniah, Haggai, Zechariah, Malachi.

Interestingly there seems to be some indication that the disciples were also referenced as 'the twelve' in many earlier traditions. Origen mentions a ους Δώδεκα Ευαγγελιον in his Homilies of Luke which was an old non-canonical gospel.

Whoever was promoting the existence of 'the twelve' was clearly part of or anticipated the so-called 'New Prophesy' movement.
Do you see any significance in Mark's use of the anarthrous form when introducing the Twelve ? (3:14, και εποιησεν δωδεκα cf LXX Jos 4:4 και ανακαλεσαμενος Ιησους δωδεκα ανδρας).

I read a paper a while back on Mark's use of Anarthrous Predicative Nouns but I can't say I am any wiser as to what idiomatic significance it may have with respect to the twelve. Any ideas ?

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Old 09-29-2011, 01:16 PM   #27
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The only anarthrous 'the Twelve' I can see is Mark 3:14 and it seems to go back to Aramaic. It is worth noting that the term apostles is found only here, Matthew 10:2 and six more times in Luke (6:13; 9:10; 11:49; 17:5; 22:14; 24:10).
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Old 09-29-2011, 02:10 PM   #28
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By Jesus' time, the 12 separate tribes were lost in the mists of history.
IYO then is it suspicious for Paul to have known he was from the tribe of Benjamin?

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Picking a physical representative of each tribe would make the narrative clearly unhistorical.
I thought they were written as allegories, Toto.
:huh:

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But you still don't have any idea if the symbolism came from a historical Jesus or the narrator.
Right, but a narrator would have a much easier time of picking one person from each tribe. This narrator saw no need to even try, nor to even make the 'ideal' possible.


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There are numerous instances where the Zealots are referred to indirectly.
Not his own disciple! That's my point. Why include him in a fictional account if not to make a theological statement about it?

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The inclusion of incidental details is not an indication of historicity.
Details without a religious purpose sound historical.
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Old 09-29-2011, 02:36 PM   #29
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Mack Burton WHO WROTE THE NEW TESTAMENT?
The Making of the Christian Myth
HarperCollins SanFrancisco (1995)

Burton has this to say:

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Apostles and Disciples
Keep in mind that no one before the Gospels calls Peter or anyone else a “disciple”, meaning a follower of the earthly Jesus during his ministry.

In the entire catalogue of New Testament epistles there is no mention of any disciple attached to Jesus, no appointment of anyone to apostleship by Jesus on earth, no appeal to the authority of those who can trace their preaching pedigree back to an earthly Jesus. The term “disciple” never appears because there was no Master to whom such followers could be attached. Open Strong’s Concordance and glance over the three solid columns of the word “disciple(s)”. Is it not exceedingly suspicious that almost 300 occurrences can be found in the Gospels and Acts and not a single one in any New Testament epistle?
Thought I would throw that out. I know no one is going to buy it but its just more gas on the fire so to speak.
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Old 09-29-2011, 02:57 PM   #30
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Mack Burton WHO WROTE THE NEW TESTAMENT?
The Making of the Christian Myth
HarperCollins SanFrancisco (1995)

Burton has this to say:

Quote:
Apostles and Disciples
Keep in mind that no one before the Gospels calls Peter or anyone else a “disciple”, meaning a follower of the earthly Jesus during his ministry.

In the entire catalogue of New Testament epistles there is no mention of any disciple attached to Jesus, no appointment of anyone to apostleship by Jesus on earth, no appeal to the authority of those who can trace their preaching pedigree back to an earthly Jesus. The term “disciple” never appears because there was no Master to whom such followers could be attached. Open Strong’s Concordance and glance over the three solid columns of the word “disciple(s)”. Is it not exceedingly suspicious that almost 300 occurrences can be found in the Gospels and Acts and not a single one in any New Testament epistle?
Thought I would throw that out. I know no one is going to buy it but its just more gas on the fire so to speak.
It is interesting. I also noticed that in Acts, 'disciples' almost always refers to anyone who believed in Jesus (ie the early Christians were all 'disciples'), and 'apostles' was almost exclusively retained to refer to the twelve. GLuke refers to the twelve as apostles a few times, but disciples more often, but also has this:

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And when day came, He called His disciples to Him and chose twelve of them, whom He also named as apostles
Sounds to me like 'disciples' might be a term added later on by orthodoxy.
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