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12-23-2009, 01:21 AM | #131 | |
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spin |
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12-23-2009, 01:22 AM | #132 |
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12-23-2009, 05:10 AM | #133 | |
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with a dash of creative imagination, please
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They had no internet. They had no cinema. They had no television. What to do for entertainment? Tell stories. Good stories. Elaborate stories. Stories with themes that meander about, and then, suddenly, thrust wildly forward, a virtual waterfall of imagination. This prophet, Jesus, had to be related to David, else the prophecy would not have been believable, and the story would have lost one of its main foci: harmony with ancient, written traditions. So, the story tellers added a bit of spice, as they sat around the fire, snow falling, dreams of warmer times ahead, or, maybe even, thoughts of a pretty, young, teenage lass of their own, waiting to snuggle up, next to the old codger, as the fire's embers began to fade. avi |
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12-23-2009, 06:59 AM | #134 | |
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of course their are those that differ in opinion and see direct literal relationships. here is one such argument that seems well laid out to me. http://www.answering-islam.org/BibleCom/lk1-36.html there are some that see the geneology in Luke as Mary's which has some support in Luke 3:23 He was the son (as was supposed) of Joseph. ~Steve |
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12-23-2009, 07:04 AM | #135 |
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The whole thing is even trickier if David never existed
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12-23-2009, 09:03 AM | #136 | |
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So, if my little theory should hold then, there was no-one in Paul's time who had any interest in Jesus' Davidic descent. Paul's Christ was a man of heaven, homo spiritus, and the Davidic pedigree was not only superfluous to Jesus' messianic credentials, but running directly against the Paul's description of a messiah as the suffering servant of God, someone who is not powerful, and not wise in this world. So, Rom 1:3 would be a later insert. |
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12-23-2009, 09:37 AM | #137 | ||
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Matt 1:1 Mark 12:35-36 Luke 1:69 John 7:42 Rev 5:5 Rev 22:16 There also does not appear to be any evidence whatsoever that Rom 1:3 was a later addition. |
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12-23-2009, 10:54 AM | #138 | |
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Consider it possible that Paul actually was the first one who propagated the idea of Jesus the Messiah. The way I read the texts, it was Paul who countered the Jesus' missions from Jerusalem who would have continued the Jesus message - the coming of the kingdom through an apocalyptic collapse. Jesus was very unlikely a Messiah figure for the Jacobite congregation but a martyred prophet who - as a high priest in heaven - prepared the way for a conquering messiah to come. So, if my little theory should hold then, there was no-one in Paul's time who had any interest in Jesus' Davidic descent. Paul's Christ was a man of heaven, homo spiritus, and the Davidic pedigree was not only superfluous to Jesus' messianic credentials, but running directly against the Paul's description of a messiah as the suffering servant of God, someone who is not powerful, and not wise in this world. So, Rom 1:3 would be most likely a later insert. After Paul's death, and during / after the Jewish War of 66-70 CE, as some of the Nazarene groups came into contact with Pauline churches in the diaspora, they became persuaded that Jesus indeed was Messiah, and began to assert his Davidic pedigree to "prove" that he was the chosen one to whom they had a direct link through apostolic succession. This idea was opposed by the Pauline churches, as essentially flesh-mongering of the Jesus idolaters. Mark, in the spirit of the Pauline teachings, has Jesus himself, in arguing with the interpreters of the scriptures, nix the idea of the messiah's Davidic descent (12:37) by invoking Psalm 110:1. This is received by the crowd (representing the church of the faithful) with gladness. Though, most commentators on Mark note the denial, most will not entertain the idea that the Davidic descent of Jesus, was work in progress at the time and favouring ideas which ran athwart Paul's groundwork. Vincent Taylor e.g. believed that the passage was to expose 'the futility of messianic hopes which do not rise above the earthly and human plane' but sees in Jesus' denying the Davidic line a rejection of OT testimony. Here is a sketch of possible a development of the messianic status of Jesus. 30-35 CE Galilean Jesus adopted by the Nazarenes as a martyr of last days. Connected to Jesus of Zechariah 3 vision, becomes apostle and heavenly intercessor of the church for the coming of messiah. 37-64 Paul asserts resurrected Jesus as the Christ with the transparent motive to combat "earthly messianism". 65-80 After Paul's death, and at the time of the Jewish War of 66-70, groups of exiled Nazarenes come into contact with Paul's congregations in the diaspora. Some realignments ensue. Some Pauline churches open up to the traditions of the earthly Jesus but assert primacy of Paul's gnosis of the Lord. The Nazarenes for their part, in seeking converts, begin to proclaim Jesus as messiah, assert his Davidic descent and accept the cross (on cue by Mark) as the messianic symbol. 80-130 With four gospels and Acts, Jesus 'dual' nature is more or less established and ready for its test against Marcion's challenge. Regards, Jiri |
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12-23-2009, 11:01 AM | #139 | |
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Romans 1:3 contradicts this, don't you think ? Regards, Jiri |
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12-23-2009, 11:45 AM | #140 | ||
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it seems similar to Rom 8:5 - an appeal to not let your outlook be shaped by your own carnal desires. the word sarx is used in this manner often not referring to anything genetic or even material. Rom 8:8, for example is referring to carnality and is not an appeal to jump out of your skin. In contrast, the context of Rom 1:3 is Jesus' origins. appointed son of God promised beforehand but a descendant of David according to his flesh (in contrast to his Spirit). |
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