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03-29-2012, 01:34 AM | #121 | |
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Ehrman INVENTED a story fundamentally from thin air and now believes his story is true or likely to be. Ehrman has presented his own version of an Hypothethical Jesus. I find it completely amusing that Ehrman seems not to understand that he cannot invent his own history of Jesus and pass it off as credible. It is what is written that is the HISTORY of the Jesus character NOT what we think Jesus should have said or done. The short-Ending gMark, the earliest Jesus story, Contradicts your summary of Ehrman's Jesus. Ehrman's Jesus is NOT an historical Jesus--it is an Hypothetical Jesus based on Belief of the Bible and Rejection of Bible Jesus. |
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03-29-2012, 08:21 AM | #122 | ||||
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03-29-2012, 08:49 AM | #123 | |||
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You ought to know that the Greek word transliterated as Christ is derived from the word ANOINTED or Anointing. 1. The Hebrew word for the ANOINTED is transliterated to mean Christ. 2. The Hebrew word for Messiah is found ONLY in Daniel and is also transliterated to mean Christ. It is just ERRONEOUS that Isaiah referred to Cyrus as the Messiah. Isaiah referred to Cyrus as ANOINTED. Isaiah 45:1 KJV Quote:
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03-29-2012, 09:17 AM | #124 | ||
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Earl Doherty |
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03-29-2012, 09:25 AM | #125 | |||
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How often is the Greek word SOTER used as opposed to XRISTOS in relation to the idea of messiah, whether relating to Jesus or anyone else, especially since some sources interpret the word IESOUS/YESHUA itself to mean SOTER?
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03-29-2012, 09:37 AM | #126 | ||
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The same Hebrew word (Mashiach) is used in both Daniel 9 and Isaiah 45. They aren't different. Both say Masiach and furthermore, the LXX translates it both times as Christos. The Septuagint literally says that Cyrus the Great is "Christ." It's easy to find Christs in the Septaugint. That word does not have a unique designation in the Hebrew Bible, anymore than "king" does. When it's used to reference an exepected, conquering heir to the throne of David, it's being used elliptically, just like "son of man" (which really just means "man") is being used elliptically when it refers to the future savior of the Jews. In Bob Marley's "One Love," he says, "when the man comes there will be no doom" as a reference to the coming of the Messiah. That doesn't mean that every other time he says "man" in any lyric, he's talking about the Messiah. |
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03-29-2012, 09:52 AM | #127 |
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When a man pees whatever comes into contact with his urine is theoretically "anointed". Its really not that complex. The dew 'anoints' the grass. Champagne 'anoints' the new ship with the cork is popped.
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03-29-2012, 10:11 AM | #128 | ||||
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Here is an extensive passage from Jesus: Neither God Nor Man (p.100-101) which shows that Ehrman (and yourself) have ignored or suppressed my actual position on the matter and falsely accused me of something I do not say. It is yet another example of Ehrman's "carelessness or malice" which Neil Godfrey has been demonstrating (perhaps he'll do another posting in his series and deal with this further misrepresentation): Quote:
Here's another (p.114): Quote:
Let's look at another one (p.145-6): Quote:
I ask again: Are you willing to revisit your review, Abe? The flaws which you failed to address are piling up. Earl Doherty |
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03-29-2012, 10:13 AM | #129 | ||
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In Greek versions of the Tanakh does the word SOTER ever get used, and how often in the NT does Jesus get referred to as the SOTER as opposed to the XRISTOS?
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03-29-2012, 10:38 AM | #130 | ||
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XRISTOS, of course, occurs hundreds of times, sometimes alongside SWTHR (e.g. τοῦ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ). |
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