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Old 01-12-2009, 02:25 PM   #361
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There is no one-to-one correspondence between words in Greek and words in English. At different times, the same Greek word might be translated into many different English words, depending on our guess as to their real meaning from their context.
Our guess? Is this a slap in the face of all those humble, virtually anonymous lexicographers who have spent years and entire careers revising translations and writing books, dissertations, and monographs detailing the most minute etymological minutiae to do with ancient languages?

Are we really only guessing?

Ben.
Well, just tell us what is known to be true about Jesus of the NT without guessing.

According to Acts of the Apostles, Jesus ascended through the clouds and this event was witnessed by the disciples, now if it is supposed Jesus was just a man, then I guess the ascension of Jesus as described was a stupid monstrous lie.
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Old 01-12-2009, 05:10 PM   #362
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There is no one-to-one correspondence between words in Greek and words in English. The same Greek word might be translated into many different English words if we knew their real meaning in context.

I looked in several different online thesaurus.
http://thesaurus.reference.com/browse/foolishness

Almost all of them listed stupidity as a synonym for foolishness and vice versa. It may not be the most accurate word choice, but unless someone is trying to dishonestly change the meaning, then you should not be complaining about them using well established synonyms.
My question has nothing to do with whether the English words "foolishness" and "stupidity" are well established in English as synonyms. It's whether the Greek word that the KJV translators translated as "foolishness" was used in Koine Greek either to mean, or as as synonym, well established or otherwise, for the Greek word(s) for, "stupidity".

Do you know?
I do not know Greek, but the question that you are asking does not make any sense from a lexographic POV.

Words represent regions of meanings that overlap the regions of meanings of other words. There is almost no word in a first language that has exactly the same region of meaning as a word in a second language. The words in a different language are similar to synonyms in English - they only have similar meanings. Words represent a set of concepts but the set of concepts are at least slightly different for different languages and different geographic regions and different times and even different people.

There was no Greek word that means exactly the same thing as "foolishness" in modern English. There is no Greek word that means exactly the same thing as "stupidity" in modern English. There are one of more Greek words that represent similar concepts to some of the concepts that we associate with the word "foolishness". There are one of more Greek words that represent similar concepts to some of the concepts that we associate with the word "stupidity". Since "foolishness" and "stupidity" are synonyms in English then some of the concepts represented by "stupidity" are very similar to some of the concepts that we associate with the word "foolishness".

I would be surprised if there were no Greek word that could reasonably be translated sometimes into "foolishness" and alternatively or at other times into "stupidity".

Even if there is a Greek word that is usually translated into stupidity, and a different Greek word that is usually translated into foolishness, and they were not synonyms, that does not mean that the Greek word for stupidity should never be translated into the English word foolishness or that the Greek word for foolishness should never be translated into the English word stupidity.

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And for that matter, was the English word "stupidity" thought by the translators of the KJV to be an actual, let alone a well established, synonym for "foolishness" or that the English word "foolishness" meant "stupidity"?
I do not think that stupidity was even a word in English in 1610, or if it was, that it had its modern meaning.

An archaic meaning of foolishness was humility. I do not know what the translators of the KJB had in mind. Who knows?

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Most importantly, do you think that when Paul says:

ἡμεῖς δὲ κηρύσσομεν Χριστὸν ἐσταυ-
ρωμένον, Ἰουδαίοις μὲν σκάνδαλον ἔθνεσιν δὲ μωρίαν ,
αὐτοῖς δὲ τοῖς κλητοῖς, Ἰουδαίοις τε καὶ Ἕλλησιν,
Χριστὸν θεοῦ δύναμιν καὶ θεοῦ σοφίαν·

he is declaring that what, according to him μωρίαν regarded as "foolish" was "foolish".

In other words, do you think that the claim that the A man was apparently trying to make -- i.e, that Paul himself declared that was he was preaching was actually from his point of view as well as from that of "the Greeks, "stupid"?
Where does aa5874 claim that: Paul thought what he was preaching was stupid. I cannot find it. I have no reason to think it’s true, but I have not seen the argument.

Something that is foolish is stupid and something that is stupid is foolish.

The only reason I have to think that "foolish" is a better translation than "stupid" is some incompetent bible translators who intentionally fraudulently mistranslated the bible. The translations of bibles is an exercise performed by insanely biased religious fanatics based on Lexicons developed by crackpots.

If you have any valid argument that foolish is a better translation than stupid, then it’s probably based on a defective lexicon that you probably don't trust either.

We do not know what was in Paul's mind.

Maybe Paul was thinking the same concept of the modern English word "stupid", but the closest Greek word he knew was μωρίαν which was, unfortunately, best translated into "foolish".

Maybe Paul was mistaken in choosing the word μωρίαν and he really meant another Greek word that should be translated into “stupid”.

Paul believed things without evidence, so maybe Paul had faith that the word μωρίαν means “stupid” but his faith was misguided because it really means “foolish”. Why should we trust Paul to write what he means to write when he has no grasp on reality.

Maybe the word μωρίαν means “stupid” in Greek but the lexographers or translator made a mistake or intentionally mistranslated it into "foolishness" for doctrinal reasons.

Maybe it doesn't matter because "a stupid belief" and "a foolish belief" are approximately the same thing.

I think that aa5874’s translation is only bothering you because its non-traditional. Bible readers are used to hearing “foolish” and smiling and nodding their heads, but when Paul wrote “foolish” he probably meant it to be shocking and insulting. Under the circumstances, “stupid” might be the best translation because it has the emotional impact that Paul really intended.

-----------------------
Notice below the third definition of foolishness is identical to the second definition of stupidity.


http://wordnet-online.com/foolishness.shtml

foolishness Noun has 3 senses

1) folly, foolishness, unwiseness - the trait of acting stupidly or rashly
--1 is a kind of trait
--1 has particulars: indiscretion, injudiciousness; absurdity, fatuity, fatuousness, silliness

2) folly, foolishness, craziness - the quality of being rash and foolish
--2 is a kind of stupidity

3) stupidity, betise, folly, foolishness, imbecility - a stupid mistake
--3 is a kind of mistake, error, fault

--------------------------------

stupidity Noun has 2 senses

1) stupidity - a poor ability to understand or to profit from experience
--1 is a kind of inability
Antonyms: intelligence
--1 has particulars: denseness, dumbness, slow-wittedness; dullness, dullness, obtuseness; retardation, mental retardation, backwardness, slowness, subnormality; folly, foolishness, craziness

2) stupidity, betise, folly, foolishness, imbecility - a stupid mistake
--2 is a kind of mistake, error, fault
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Old 01-12-2009, 06:55 PM   #363
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My question has nothing to do with whether the English words "foolishness" and "stupidity" are well established in English as synonyms. It's whether the Greek word that the KJV translators translated as "foolishness" was used in Koine Greek either to mean, or as as synonym, well established or otherwise, for the Greek word(s) for, "stupidity".

Do you know?
I do not know Greek, but the question that you are asking does not make any sense from a lexographic POV.

Words represent regions of meanings that overlap the regions of meanings of other words. There is almost no word in a first language that has exactly the same region of meaning as a word in a second language. The words in a different language are similar to synonyms in English - they only have similar meanings. Words represent a set of concepts but the set of concepts are at least slightly different for different languages and different geographic regions and different times and even different people.

There was no Greek word that means exactly the same thing as "foolishness" in modern English. There is no Greek word that means exactly the same thing as "stupidity" in modern English. There are one of more Greek words that represent similar concepts to some of the concepts that we associate with the word "foolishness". There are one of more Greek words that represent similar concepts to some of the concepts that we associate with the word "stupidity". Since "foolishness" and "stupidity" are synonyms in English then some of the concepts represented by "stupidity" are very similar to some of the concepts that we associate with the word "foolishness".

I would be surprised if there were no Greek word that could reasonably be translated sometimes into "foolishness" and alternatively or at other times into "stupidity".

Even if there is a Greek word that is usually translated into stupidity, and a different Greek word that is usually translated into foolishness, and they were not synonyms, that does not mean that the Greek word for stupidity should never be translated into the English word foolishness or that the Greek word for foolishness should never be translated into the English word stupidity.



I do not think that stupidity was even a word in English in 1610, or if it was, that it had its modern meaning.

An archaic meaning of foolishness was humility. I do not know what the translators of the KJB had in mind. Who knows?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jeffrey Gibson View Post
Most importantly, do you think that when Paul says:

ἡμεῖς δὲ κηρύσσομεν Χριστὸν ἐσταυ-
ρωμένον, Ἰουδαίοις μὲν σκάνδαλον ἔθνεσιν δὲ μωρίαν ,
αὐτοῖς δὲ τοῖς κλητοῖς, Ἰουδαίοις τε καὶ Ἕλλησιν,
Χριστὸν θεοῦ δύναμιν καὶ θεοῦ σοφίαν·

he is declaring that what, according to him μωρίαν regarded as "foolish" was "foolish".

In other words, do you think that the claim that the A man was apparently trying to make -- i.e, that Paul himself declared that was he was preaching was actually from his point of view as well as from that of "the Greeks, "stupid"?
Where does aa5874 claim that: Paul thought what he was preaching was stupid. I cannot find it. I have no reason to think it’s true, but I have not seen the argument.

Something that is foolish is stupid and something that is stupid is foolish.

The only reason I have to think that "foolish" is a better translation than "stupid" is some incompetent bible translators who intentionally fraudulently mistranslated the bible. The translations of bibles is an exercise performed by insanely biased religious fanatics based on Lexicons developed by crackpots.

If you have any valid argument that foolish is a better translation than stupid, then it’s probably based on a defective lexicon that you probably don't trust either.

We do not know what was in Paul's mind.

Maybe Paul was thinking the same concept of the modern English word "stupid", but the closest Greek word he knew was μωρίαν which was, unfortunately, best translated into "foolish".

Maybe Paul was mistaken in choosing the word μωρίαν and he really meant another Greek word that should be translated into “stupid”.

Paul believed things without evidence, so maybe Paul had faith that the word μωρίαν means “stupid” but his faith was misguided because it really means “foolish”. Why should we trust Paul to write what he means to write when he has no grasp on reality.

Maybe the word μωρίαν means “stupid” in Greek but the lexographers or translator made a mistake or intentionally mistranslated it into "foolishness" for doctrinal reasons.

Maybe it doesn't matter because "a stupid belief" and "a foolish belief" are approximately the same thing.

I think that aa5874’s translation is only bothering you because its non-traditional. Bible readers are used to hearing “foolish” and smiling and nodding their heads, but when Paul wrote “foolish” he probably meant it to be shocking and insulting. Under the circumstances, “stupid” might be the best translation because it has the emotional impact that Paul really intended.

-----------------------
Notice below the third definition of foolishness is identical to the second definition of stupidity.


http://wordnet-online.com/foolishness.shtml

foolishness Noun has 3 senses

1) folly, foolishness, unwiseness - the trait of acting stupidly or rashly
--1 is a kind of trait
--1 has particulars: indiscretion, injudiciousness; absurdity, fatuity, fatuousness, silliness

2) folly, foolishness, craziness - the quality of being rash and foolish
--2 is a kind of stupidity

3) stupidity, betise, folly, foolishness, imbecility - a stupid mistake
--3 is a kind of mistake, error, fault

--------------------------------

stupidity Noun has 2 senses

1) stupidity - a poor ability to understand or to profit from experience
--1 is a kind of inability
Antonyms: intelligence
--1 has particulars: denseness, dumbness, slow-wittedness; dullness, dullness, obtuseness; retardation, mental retardation, backwardness, slowness, subnormality; folly, foolishness, craziness

2) stupidity, betise, folly, foolishness, imbecility - a stupid mistake
--2 is a kind of mistake, error, fault
:banghead::banghead::banghead:
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Old 01-12-2009, 07:50 PM   #364
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There is no one-to-one correspondence between words in Greek and words in English. At different times, the same Greek word might be translated into many different English words, depending on our guess as to their real meaning from their context.
Our guess? Is this a slap in the face of all those humble, virtually anonymous lexicographers who have spent years and entire careers revising translations and writing books, dissertations, and monographs detailing the most minute etymological minutiae to do with ancient languages?

Are we really only guessing?

Ben.
Mighty high horse there. Science involves guessing a hypotheses. Comprehension of communication involves guessing the intent of the author. The only occupation that does not involve guessing is theology where you just make up bullshit and claim that God said it.
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Old 01-12-2009, 08:16 PM   #365
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Science involves guessing a hypotheses.
Agreed. But I would not characterize science as guessing. Would you?

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The only occupation that does not involve guessing is theology where you just make up bullshit and claim that God said it.
I am not very good at theology.

Ben.
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Old 01-12-2009, 09:49 PM   #366
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:banghead::banghead::banghead:
Just blame the educationalists who keep people so much in the dark about language(s). "Common sense" is a killer of understanding and enquiry. Because everyone is a practitioner (to varying degrees) of a language, "common sense" makes them think they know something about how languages work. Argument by linguistic naivety. When have teachers recently taught students about the mechanics of languages? Yet, time and again we see people parade across the screen showing their cluelessness about what they are saying.

But then, Jeffrey, you are somewhat provocative in this respect. This seems to be entertainment on your part.


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Old 01-12-2009, 09:56 PM   #367
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Science involves guessing a hypotheses.
Agreed. But I would not characterize science as guessing. Would you?
I think you're a little too quick to agree there. I don't think science itself has anything to do with guessing, just as the law has nothing to do with guessing. Guessing is an opaque means at arriving at an idea. Science involves testing ideas about the phenomenal world. Guessing has nothing directly to do with the phenomenal world.

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The only occupation that does not involve guessing is theology where you just make up bullshit and claim that God said it.
I am not very good at theology.
I've noticed that. That's why you seem to cover it up as much as possible.


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Old 01-12-2009, 11:16 PM   #368
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I think you're a little too quick to agree there.
Yes, you are probably right.

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I am not very good at theology.
I've noticed that. That's why you seem to cover it up as much as possible.
I do not think I cover up how bad I am at theology. At least, I do not mean to.

Ben.
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Old 01-13-2009, 06:17 AM   #369
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But wait, I do not believe that the world is divided up between people with superior senses and those with just ordinary senses.
Talk to a blind man--he knows he wants the sense of sight, and willingly makes the proper allowances. But there are certain internal senses, which a man may want, and yet be wholly ignorant that he wants them. It is most unpleasant to converse with such persons on subjects of taste, philosophy, or religion. Of course there is no reasoning with them: for they do not possess the facts, on which the reasoning must be grounded. Nothing is possible, but a naked dissent, which implies a sort of unsocial contempt; or, what a man of kind dispositions is very likely to fall into, a heartless tacit acquiescence, which borders too nearly on duplicity.-- Coleridge / "On inward blindness"
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Old 01-13-2009, 06:58 AM   #370
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I am supposing that Jesus of the NT was just a mere mortal.
I don't assume that all of the men who wrote the NT were talking about the same Jesus. I believe the gospel writers were talking about a mortal man (probably fictional) while the epistle writers were talking about some other kind of being. Both groups just happened to pick the same name, most likely because one was influenced by the other.
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