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Old 06-24-2012, 05:39 PM   #181
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Unfortunately for you we have a truckload of evidence, we have thousands and thousands of examples of how early christians commonly referred to jebus.
Your truckload would be irrelevant.
Yes, just handwave away the thousands and thousands of example that don't suit you.

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Why did the writer of Mt 1:16 use the phrase "Jesus called christ" if it was not, according to you, kosher for him to do so?
I didn't say it wasn't kosher. If you stop provocatively misrepresenting me I'll consider replying but while you do it, I've got better things to do
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Old 06-24-2012, 05:43 PM   #182
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You swing from hyper-skepticism to the most immovable conviction you are right about something or other. Would you like some examples?
My fencesitting is not sporadic:
Yes it is.
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if there is insufficient evidence, I don't force a position.
Yes you do.
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You just confuse that with the fact that I will defend views that I have sufficient evidence for.
You're not capable of judging your own work
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Old 06-24-2012, 05:44 PM   #183
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Sorry for getting in the middle of this circle jerk but let me say that I hadn't noticed how odd the λεγομενος is in Matthew 1:16. It's even stranger that the use in Josephus. It has to be related. How else can this be explained?
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Old 06-24-2012, 05:48 PM   #184
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There is a similar use in Justin:

And his son, who alone is authoritatively called son [ο μονος λεγομενος κυριως υιος], the word who also was with him and was begotten before the deeds, when in the beginning he created and arranged all things through him, is called Christ according to his being anointed and God arranging all things through him [Χριστος μεν κατα το κεχρισθαι και κοσμησαι τα παντα δι αυτου τον θεον λεγεται], this name itself also holding an unknown significance, in like manner as the appellation God is not a name, but rather an opinion impressed in the nature of men of a matter that cannot be explicated. [Justin Apology 2.6.3]

I think it goes to the heart of the common use of λεγομενος in Josephus and Matthew. Christians used this word in a special way. I don't think it meant 'so-called' in Josephus. This is just assumed because the author is thought to be Josephus. λεγομενος is being used in a special way, sort of an early Christian creed.
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Old 06-24-2012, 05:50 PM   #185
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Sorry for getting in the middle of this circle jerk but let me say that I hadn't noticed how odd the λεγομενος is in Matthew 1:16. It's even stranger that the use in Josephus. It has to be related. How else can this be explained?
Yes, no one ever used λεγομενος ever, in any context.
Must have been the macoroni-ites.
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Old 06-24-2012, 05:54 PM   #186
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Originally Posted by thief of fire View Post
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Originally Posted by spin View Post
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Originally Posted by thief of fire View Post
You swing from hyper-skepticism to the most immovable conviction you are right about something or other. Would you like some examples?
My fencesitting is not sporadic:
Yes it is.
Quote:
if there is insufficient evidence, I don't force a position.
Yes you do.
Quote:
You just confuse that with the fact that I will defend views that I have sufficient evidence for.
You're not capable of judging your own work
What a vacuous response from someone who seems incapable of mustering evidence for his statements.
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Old 06-24-2012, 05:56 PM   #187
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It's not being used like this:

Εν τοις νοθοις κατατεταχθω και των Παυλου πραξεων η γραφη, ο τε λεγομενος ποιμην, και η αποκαλυψις Πετρου

This is the standard usage. I think it is used in Matthew in a special way. Almost to say 'we humans can't understand what Christ means.' It is beyond our comprehension. Something more than even a messiah. A mysterious process. 'More than mere physical anointing.'
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Old 06-24-2012, 05:58 PM   #188
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Sorry for getting in the middle of this circle jerk but let me say that I hadn't noticed how odd the λεγομενος is in Matthew 1:16. It's even stranger that the use in Josephus. It has to be related. How else can this be explained?
Could you elucidate this, Stephan? What makes λεγομενος much different from καλουμενος?

Mt 4:8 talks of σιμονα τον λεγομενον πετρον.
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Old 06-24-2012, 05:58 PM   #189
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Yes, no one ever used λεγομενος ever, in any context.
That's not the point. You'd expect a Christian to say 'Jesus the Christ.' It would be like if I said 'Lisa my so-called wife.' It's odd.
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Old 06-24-2012, 06:04 PM   #190
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It's also used nowhere else in the gospels or the NT in relation to Jesus. It's just odd.
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