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Old 07-03-2006, 05:40 AM   #41
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Originally Posted by Solo
So let's just say that the Virgin worked for her ! Fair ?
Fair enough. If you're also willing to concede that someone else's rubbing their lucky amulet is what cured them.

The mind is a powerful thing.

The question is - was there some external source - like a deity or a guardian angel or a savior (or the Virgin Mary) - who reached down with their magic finger and did the healing?

And, we won't even go into the millions and millions of prayers for healings by congregations and terminally ill people that go unanswered.

Unless, of course, you're one of those who claim that God did answer. He just said "no".
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Old 07-03-2006, 07:37 AM   #42
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Unless, of course, you're one of those who claim that God did answer. He just said "no".
"Sometimes I thank God... <riff> ... for unanswered prayers" - Garth Brooks

That whole mindset just infuriates me. But that's another topic...
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Old 07-03-2006, 03:52 PM   #43
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Unless, of course, you're one of those who claim that God did answer. He just said "no".
No. it's actually worse than that. He started to talk to me without me asking for anything.

JS
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Old 07-04-2006, 12:53 AM   #44
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Those abilities were given to the Apostles, not every follower of Christ throughout history.
I've met believers who would disagree with you on that. See here for one example. I think the real question is: Where does disease and disability come from in the first place? Created by a loving god? Sometimes it occurs in-utero, other times it is genetic or caused by bacteria, Malignancies, etc. So first god would strike millions and then heal a handful I suppose, expecting to be glorified? Almost like a person setting fire to a building, then attempting to rescue some victims, leaving the others to their own fate and hoping to be hailed as a hero. Weird. :huh:
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Old 07-04-2006, 01:51 AM   #45
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Those abilities were given to the Apostles, not every follower of Christ throughout history.
Not much point making a pilgrimage to Lourdes or Fatima then, or appealing to the saints.
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Old 07-04-2006, 01:52 AM   #46
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Can you prove no miracles happened in the 1st Century or is this merely your opinion?
Shifting burden of proof fallacy.
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Old 07-04-2006, 02:02 AM   #47
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The burden of proof is on the one making the claim. aa claimed that Jesus did not perform miracles. He is the one making the claim. I don't have the burden of proof, because i'm not making any claims other than aa5784's post was purely based on his opinion, and had no evidentiary support.
The burden of proof applies to POSITIVE claims, ie that Jesus DID perform miracles. We don't have to prove that he did not.
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Old 07-04-2006, 07:35 AM   #48
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So are you saying there is evidence? What is it?

<silencio!>

Yeah, Didn't think so.
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Old 07-04-2006, 08:34 AM   #49
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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Today, millions of Christians disagree as to what constitutes a miracle healing. Why should anyone believe that it was any different back then?
It is different because of the imposition of information and education generally. What was viewed with superstition then and given religious twist may, today, be viewed in a different light. A total eclipse of the sun, for example, is understood today (informationally). It was not understood then. So, views change over time.

There are more Christians today than in 300 CE for example. Hence, more disagreement about virtually all doctrines which are linked to that religion. Then, there were not more than 1,000 different groups all claiming to be Christian.

You’re correct that Christians don’t agree today. But the level of doctrinal divide and the extent of doctrinal shifts expanded over time. The printing press and the Protestant Reformation (1511 CE) contributed greatly to the diversity of interpretation even about “miracle healing” which is only one of many doctrinal divides today in Christianity.


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Old 07-04-2006, 08:47 AM   #50
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Default There is not good evidence that Jesus healed sick people

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Today, millions of Christians disagree as to what constitutes a miracle healing. Why should anyone believe that it was any different back then?
Quote:
Originally Posted by JAK1
It is different because of the imposition of information and education generally. What was viewed with superstition then and given religious twist may, today, be viewed in a different light. A total eclipse of the sun, for example, is understood today (informationally). It was not understood then. So, views change over time.

There are more Christians today than in 300 CE for example. Hence, more disagreement about virtually all doctrines which are linked to that religion. Then, there were not more than 1,000 different groups all claiming to be Christian.

You’re correct that Christians don’t agree today. But the level of doctrinal divide and the extent of doctrinal shifts expanded over time. The printing press and the Protestant Reformation (1511 CE) contributed greatly to the diversity of interpretation even about “miracle healing” which is only one of many doctrinal divides today in Christianity.
But we don't know how much disagreement there was during the time of Jesus. If people can make false conclusions today, then surely people during the time of Jesus could have made false conclusions too. We don't really know how many people saw Jesus perform miracles. The anonymous Gospel writers never claimed to have seen a miracle, they seldom if ever revealed their sources, and their claims were second hand at best, and possibly third hand or fourth hand.

Matthew 14:14 says "And Jesus went forth, and saw a great multitude, and was moved with compassion toward them, and he healed their sick", and yet, Exodus 4:11 says "And the Lord said unto him, Who hath made man's mouth? or who maketh the dumb, or deaf, or the seeing, or the blind? have not I the Lord?" Is it your position that God makes people blind, deaf, and dumb because he has compassion for them? Instead of asking God for protection from the Devil, you need to ask him to protect you from himself.

Where is God today in tangible ways?
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