Magdlyn

As I hinted at above, the thought is, Jesus could not have been in conflict with Pharisees such as the schools of Hillel and Gamaliel et al, b/c some of his "revolutionary" ideas about religious observance were in fact, reflections of Pharasiacal (proto-rabbinical exegetical) teachings of the day, 1st Cent CE.

Remember in GMark 12 where Jesus is made to say "you are not far from the kingdom of god" to a scribe? (The whole chapter is pertinent to the argument.) This saying was censored in later gospels, to increase the anti-Semitic flavor.

The true conflict of the day was not between an unknown itinerant preacher (with the Greek name of Iesous) and the Pharisees. It was between the Pharisees ("Persians"-those influenced by Zoroastrianism, teachers of the so-called oral Torah?) and the Sadducees (Zadokites?), priests concerned with daily sacrifice and unbelievers in the resurrection to boot.

This is the take Robt Price and Maccoby have on it, IIRC.