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Old 02-25-2009, 06:00 PM   #31
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Sin is not crime.

How do you decide which laws are ritual and which are "non-ritual moral / ethical / judiciary?" Where does working on the Sabbath fall? adultery?
Working on the sabbath acts as a ritual law for Jews [sanctification], and its extention of 1 day of rest per week with pay, being a judiciary/civic law for the world [sunday and friday for christians and muslims respectively]. All Judiciary laws come from the Hebrew bible - exclusively. An amazing and haughty sounding statement - but true.
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Old 02-25-2009, 09:23 PM   #32
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Without looking to the scripture, I think the KJV reads it as: "thou shalt not boil a kid in its mothers milk". Interpreted as: Don't cook a pregnant goat. Reason being, not to give up two for one. Doesn't have anything to do with eating meat with milk, but then someone said it has to do with "scapegoating".

I also read that the ancient Israelites practiced cutting the flesh off a cow while it was still alive in order to prepare a meal. This was cruelty to animals and so the saying "thou shalt not eat the flesh of a live animal". Which I think this one is listed in the 7 Noahide Laws for Gentiles in America but not the rest of the world, as given by a rabid Scheerson. :lol: Aren't we just so lucky? And, Jews are somehow excluded from these Noahide laws.
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Old 02-25-2009, 09:46 PM   #33
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Originally Posted by Toto View Post
Sin is not crime.

How do you decide which laws are ritual and which are "non-ritual moral / ethical / judiciary?" Where does working on the Sabbath fall? adultery?
Working on the sabbath acts as a ritual law for Jews [sanctification], and its extention of 1 day of rest per week with pay, being a judiciary/civic law for the world [sunday and friday for christians and muslims respectively]. All Judiciary laws come from the Hebrew bible - exclusively. An amazing and haughty sounding statement - but true.

All judiciary laws for Jews come from the Hebrew bible - exclusively. But I would make a wild guess that the Hebrews adopted and adapted their laws from those already existing, such as the Moses character took from Egypt and surrounding countries to establish the laws of commandments for Israelites. For instance, "Thou shalt not kill" would have been a common enough law applying in all civil-ized countries in those days. What then made it particular concerning the Israelites/Jews? The only answer making sense, is that Israelites/Jews were commanded to not kill their own brethren/countrymen. For the God of Israel commanded the Israelites to kill other people "without pity and sparing none" - to exterminate everything that had breadth within it; old, young, children, pregnant women, even their animals. Blood-guilt was only punished should an Israelite intentionally kill a brethren Israelite. It was not considered murder to kill non Israelites. Otherwise Yahweh's commandments would be useless to the Israelites.

Sabbath keeping is not a world-wide law. Prohibition in selling liquor on Sunday is not a world-wide law. Blasphemy is not a world-wide law. etc.. Most of the world 's people do not recognize Jewish laws as applying to themselves nor do they recognize the Hebrew/Israel god as the one and only god.
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Old 02-25-2009, 11:48 PM   #34
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Without looking to the scripture, I think the KJV reads it as: "thou shalt not boil a kid in its mothers milk". Interpreted as: Don't cook a pregnant goat. Reason being, not to give up two for one. Doesn't have anything to do with eating meat with milk, but then someone said it has to do with "scapegoating".
No - because it would have been better listed as pregnant animal. The Hebrew is a most pristine texts, taking the shortest route between words, using the best applicable grammar. This law is also affirmed by the law not to take an offspring with its mother - rendering your interpretation as superfluos.

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I also read that the ancient Israelites practiced cutting the flesh off a cow while it was still alive in order to prepare a meal. This was cruelty to animals and so the saying "thou shalt not eat the flesh of a live animal".
The ancient Israelites [in Canaan] practices would not impact here: the law was not yet given. If anyone did eat from a living animals, it onlu constitutes a sin by those who did so - it does not impact on the veracty of the laws.


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Which I think this one is listed in the 7 Noahide Laws for Gentiles in America but not the rest of the world, as given by a rabid Scheerson. :lol: Aren't we just so lucky? And, Jews are somehow excluded from these Noahide laws
This view is recent, and appears relied only on the premise the nation of Israel did not become incepted till Moses, when the term of 'nation' is used thereafter. Whatever laws were given before this time are thus referred to as applying to all humanity. What is more impacting is the laws are accepted by the world independently of whatever the Jews say, indicating they are correct or warrented laws.
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Old 02-26-2009, 12:12 AM   #35
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For instance, "Thou shalt not kill" would have been a common enough law applying in all civil-ized countries in those days.
Correct. Many commonsense laws predated Abraham, including the law of circumsizion.

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What then made it particular concerning the Israelites/Jews? The only answer making sense, is that Israelites/Jews were commanded to not kill their own brethren/countrymen.
Not so. The correct translate is not to 'murder'; there is also equivalent back-up laws, to love the stranger; not to cheat or lie to a stranger; equal justice to the stranger as the inhabitant.

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For the God of Israel commanded the Israelites to kill other people "without pity and sparing none" - to exterminate everything that had breadth within it; old, young, children, pregnant women, even their animals.
If you read the texts properly, you will find this was only a defense action [as with the canaanites], and only applicable to a certain period when this was the norm in the world. In some wars, prisoners were never taken when a peace offer was rejected, because of a superstitition, and applied both ways. This is matched by studying this period's history.

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Blood-guilt was only punished should an Israelite intentionally kill a brethren Israelite. It was not considered murder to kill non Israelites. Otherwise Yahweh's commandments would be useless to the Israelites.

Sabbath keeping is not a world-wide law.
One day in seven is a world wide law. The French tried to change it to 1 in 10, and this failed. Both the day and the week was introduced in Genesis, and the advocation of the seventh day of the week being one where creation [work] was rested.

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Prohibition in selling liquor on Sunday is not a world-wide law.
Certain things considered vital services are exceptions of the rule, and not a negation of the law. This depends on a country's priorities.

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Blasphemy is not a world-wide law. etc..
Yes it is. It falls under hate speech and incitement, and not accounted as free speech.

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Most of the world 's people do not recognize Jewish laws as applying to themselves nor do they recognize the Hebrew/Israel god as the one and only god.
The laws the world follows is nowhere more comprehensively listed than in the Hebrew bible - is the point here. Further, that the world does not follow any other laws from elsewhere. The premise of Monotheism is followed by all religions one way or another - and there is no need to refer to this as the God of Israel, but of the universe [the texts]. the laws which was spread via christianity, and now called 'common law' was derived from the OT.
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Old 02-26-2009, 06:59 AM   #36
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Without looking to the scripture, I think the KJV reads it as: "thou shalt not boil a kid in its mothers milk". Interpreted as: Don't cook a pregnant goat. Reason being, not to give up two for one. Doesn't have anything to do with eating meat with milk, but then someone said it has to do with "scapegoating".
No - because it would have been better listed as pregnant animal. The Hebrew is a most pristine texts, taking the shortest route between words, using the best applicable grammar. This law is also affirmed by the law not to take an offspring with its mother - rendering your interpretation as superfluos.



The ancient Israelites [in Canaan] practices would not impact here: the law was not yet given. If anyone did eat from a living animals, it onlu constitutes a sin by those who did so - it does not impact on the veracty of the laws.


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Which I think this one is listed in the 7 Noahide Laws for Gentiles in America but not the rest of the world, as given by a rabid Scheerson. :lol: Aren't we just so lucky? And, Jews are somehow excluded from these Noahide laws
This view is recent, and appears relied only on the premise the nation of Israel did not become incepted till Moses, when the term of 'nation' is used thereafter. Whatever laws were given before this time are thus referred to as applying to all humanity. What is more impacting is the laws are accepted by the world independently of whatever the Jews say, indicating they are correct or warrented laws.

Well, I disagree. Because.. the writer evidently wanted to differienciate between the "kinds" of animals, thus a "kid" most likely relates to a pregnant goat - "thou shalt not boil a kid in its mothers milk". I wouldn't think it relates to a camel, sheep or cow.

If the Hebrews were living in land of Canaanites then they learned from existing laws of the land, until Moses gave the standards whereby the Israelites established themselves as an independent people/nation. But I would not think the Israelites to be any different than other tribal people who broke away from certain Canaanite laws to form their own. The structured development always expanding to accomodate progressive generations.

I will agree that common sense laws were acceptable independently of what the Jews said, but not that Jews were the originators of laws and standards of living for the world.
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Old 02-26-2009, 07:40 AM   #37
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For instance, "Thou shalt not kill" would have been a common enough law applying in all civil-ized countries in those days.
Correct. Many commonsense laws predated Abraham, including the law of circumsizion.



Not so. The correct translate is not to 'murder'; there is also equivalent back-up laws, to love the stranger; not to cheat or lie to a stranger; equal justice to the stranger as the inhabitant.


If you read the texts properly, you will find this was only a defense action [as with the canaanites], and only applicable to a certain period when this was the norm in the world. In some wars, prisoners were never taken when a peace offer was rejected, because of a superstitition, and applied both ways. This is matched by studying this period's history.



One day in seven is a world wide law. The French tried to change it to 1 in 10, and this failed. Both the day and the week was introduced in Genesis, and the advocation of the seventh day of the week being one where creation [work] was rested.



Certain things considered vital services are exceptions of the rule, and not a negation of the law. This depends on a country's priorities.



Yes it is. It falls under hate speech and incitement, and not accounted as free speech.

Quote:
Most of the world 's people do not recognize Jewish laws as applying to themselves nor do they recognize the Hebrew/Israel god as the one and only god.
The laws the world follows is nowhere more comprehensively listed than in the Hebrew bible - is the point here. Further, that the world does not follow any other laws from elsewhere. The premise of Monotheism is followed by all religions one way or another - and there is no need to refer to this as the God of Israel, but of the universe [the texts]. the laws which was spread via christianity, and now called 'common law' was derived from the OT.

Predating Abraham, did all people in the middle east circumcise their tribes/clans/countrymen? For example, Egypt practiced circumcision but wasn't in the house of Abraham.

Ok, so the command is not to murder. Israelites were commanded not to murder each other. But they WERE commanded to murder other people by their god on his demand. The story revolves around this one concept in order to accomplish "the promise" of land. Self-defense is not noted as a reason for taking land, and "the promised land" was conditional upon the ability to overpower and take the land from others. Provocation by Israelites was commanded in order to insight distress and so Israelites created an enemy then went in for the kill, so to speak. I would assume that Moses learned this military strategy from the Egyptians or the Mideanites and father Jethro. Or other tribal factions. Credit in victory or loss given to Yahweh.

Equal justice to the stranger in the gates doesn't indicate that Yahweh did not order slaughter of innocents in land of Canaanites. The scripts say plainly that he did. Of course Moses was called "a god" and that explains a lot from the writers perspective.

What is the 8th day when calculating the seventh and how does this compute with the Sabbath of rest, especially when the Hebrews had no way of knowing the first day of creation?

Blasphemy law does not apply to the world of non-Jewish people. It only relates to the guilty Jews who take the name of their Lord God in vain. The laws at Sinai were not given to the whole world. They were given to Israelites alone in order to make them an independent nation in worship of one monotheistic god called Yahweh, or other names given.

Blasphemy law is useless in the world due to all the world not being Jewish or believing in the God of Israel. Hate speech is permitted in America as free speech. Speaking against the bible god is permitted in America. Speaking against Jews and Jewish religion is permitted in America. What is prohibited is speaking in order to harm or kill another person, for instance, it is illegal to conspire to kill ones spouse for money. It is illegal to conspire to kill a Mormon because he is a Mormon, a Jew because he is a Jew, an atheist because he is an atheist.

I think the world got its standards of laws from learned experience, not from the Hebrew bible.
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Old 02-26-2009, 08:16 AM   #38
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And the NT is incorrect here. Not only because that advocation is not accepted by any institution today, but also because it mis-reps the Hebrew bible in essence, which says one's thoughts are not crimes - unless turned into actions. This allows a person the right of re-considering between a good and bad thought, the former being in many cases involuntary.
Well, Christ is really exhorting people to improve their thinking, and not to moralize against those whose bad thoughts have led to bad actions. Ultimately, he is saying that we have to understand that our thoughts are our lives.
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Old 02-26-2009, 11:43 AM   #39
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Originally Posted by IamJoseph View Post
And the NT is incorrect here. Not only because that advocation is not accepted by any institution today, but also because it mis-reps the Hebrew bible in essence, which says one's thoughts are not crimes - unless turned into actions. This allows a person the right of re-considering between a good and bad thought, the former being in many cases involuntary.
Well, Christ is really exhorting people to improve their thinking, and not to moralize against those whose bad thoughts have led to bad actions. Ultimately, he is saying that we have to understand that our thoughts are our lives.
You think?

QM?
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Old 02-26-2009, 12:08 PM   #40
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You think?
Certainly.:shrug: You don't?:huh:
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